Explore topic-wise MCQs in Bachelor of Business Administration (BBA).

This section includes 152 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Bachelor of Business Administration (BBA) knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

51.

Deduction for services rendered --------- C. Section 7 4. Deductions from absence of duty --------- D. Section 11

A. 1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-b
B. 1-c, 2-a, 3-b, 4-d
C. 1-b, 2-d, 3-c, 4-a
D. 1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c
Answer» B. 1-c, 2-a, 3-b, 4-d
52.

What is the penalty for those who contravene the provision of section 4 sub section (4) of section 5 or 10 or 25?

A. 500 rupees
B. 5000 rupees
C. upto 500 rupees
D. none of the above
Answer» D. none of the above
53.

A single application may be presented under section ___ on behalf or in respect of any number of employed persons.

A. sub section 3 of section 15
B. section 15
C. section 14
D. section 10
Answer» C. section 14
54.

Which section takes care of payment of undisbursed wages in case of death of employed person?

A. section 25a
B. section 25
C. section 26
D. section 22a
Answer» B. section 25
55.

Which section of the act covers deduction for damage or loss?

A. section 10
B. section 9
C. section 12
D. section 7
Answer» B. section 9
56.

What is the maximum limit of fine to be imposed on an employee?

A. should not exceed an amount equal to 5% of the wages payable
B. should not exceed an amount equal to 1% of the wages payable
C. should not exceed an amount equal to 3% of the wages payable
D. should not exceed an amount equal to 10% of the wages payable
Answer» D. should not exceed an amount equal to 10% of the wages payable
57.

What is the maximum wage period for the payment of wages?

A. 1 month
B. 40 days
C. 45 days
D. 60 days
Answer» B. 40 days
58.

Which of these deductions under section 7 of payment of wages act is not authorised?

A. deduction for fines
B. deduction for payment of income tax
C. deduction for payment of insurance
D. deduction for payment of uniform and property
Answer» E.
59.

In any factory or industrial establishment where less than 1000 employees are employed the wages shall be paid before the expiry of the ____ day.

A. 10th day
B. 2nd day
C. 7th day
D. none of the above
Answer» D. none of the above
60.

In which year did the payment of wages act come into force?

A. 23rd april, 1925
B. 28th march, 1940
C. 23rd april, 1936
D. 28th march, 1937
Answer» E.
61.

In which year was the first suggestion for the legislation in the act made?

A. 1934
B. 1925
C. 1936
D. 1937
Answer» C. 1936
62.

Choose the correct date and year on which payment of wages act was passed?

A. 23rd april, 1936
B. 28th march, 1937
C. 25th april, 1937
D. 27th april, 1936
Answer» B. 28th march, 1937
63.

The first suggestion for legislation in the act was made by a private member's bill called __________.

A. legislative bill
B. wages bill
C. weekly payment bill
D. none of the above
Answer» D. none of the above
64.

In cubic meters how much space is allotted to each worker after the commencement of factories act?

A. 9.5
B. 10
C. 14.2
D. 12.4
Answer» D. 12.4
65.

Which of the below mentioned provisions come under safety provisions?

A. lighting
B. crèche
C. self – acting machinery
D. ventilation and temperature
Answer» D. ventilation and temperature
66.

Section 76 empowers the state government to make rules for _____

A. the period of work for all children employed
B. fitness certificate to work in a factory
C. canteen facilities
D. prescribing physical standards to be attained by the young persons for working in factories
Answer» E.
67.

Under section 106, a complaint must be filed within ____ months of the date when the commission of the offence came to the knowledge of an inspector.

A. 6 months
B. 3 months
C. 1 months
D. 12 months
Answer» C. 1 months
68.

What is the maximum amount of fees to be paid for licensing process?

A. 5 years
B. 1 year
C. 3 years
D. 7 years
Answer» B. 1 year
69.

Which section of the factories act covers the list of diseases given in the schedule?

A. section 3
B. section 25
C. section 87
D. section 89
Answer» E.
70.

If there are 100 workers in a factory, then one seat is allotted to how many workers

A. 25
B. 50
C. 100
D. 75
Answer» B. 50
71.

Section 99 of factories act deals with which of the following options?

A. appeal
B. penalty for permitting double employment of a child
C. display of notice
D. penalty for obstructing inspectors
Answer» C. display of notice
72.

Choose the correct option that states the type of leave facilities for a worker mentioned in the factories act?

A. maternity leave
B. casual leave
C. annual leave with wages as per factories act
D. national & festival holidays
Answer» D. national & festival holidays
73.

How many hours in a week can an adult work as per factories act?

A. 9 hours
B. 56 hours
C. 34 hours
D. 48 hours
Answer» E.
74.

Which section of the act covers the topic annual leave with wages?

A. section 27
B. section 5
C. section 86
D. section 79
Answer» E.
75.

From the below mentioned options, which of the following is not mentioned under the welfare provision in the factories act?

A. canteen
B. creches
C. drinking water
D. first aid
Answer» D. first aid
76.

Fitness certificate granted under "sub section 2" of the act is valid for how many months?

A. 10 months
B. 24 months
C. 6 months
D. 12 months
Answer» E.
77.

If a company has _____ number of employees, then the appointment of a safety officer is mandatory under the factories act.

A. 500
B. 100
C. 1000
D. 10000
Answer» D. 10000
78.

Which of the following diseases is not mentioned in the section 89 of factories act?

A. anthrax
B. asbestosis
C. phosphorus
D. pneumonia
Answer» E.
79.

If there are ____ numbers of employees, then the employer has to provide a canteen.

A. 250
B. 510
C. 320
D. 100
Answer» B. 510
80.

Maintenance of buildings ------------------- c.) Section 6 4. Protection of eyes ------------------------- d.) Section 40A

A. ) 1 - c, 2 - a, 3 - d, 4 - b
B. ) 1 - b, 2 - a, 3 - d, 4 - c
C. ) 1 - c, 2 - d, 3 - a, 4 - b
D. ) 1 - a, 2 - c, 3 - d, 4 - b
Answer» B. ) 1 - b, 2 - a, 3 - d, 4 - c
81.

Section 2(g) under the act defines _______

A. factory
B. manufacturing process
C. worker
D. occupants
Answer» C. worker
82.

As per section 2 in factories act, who will be called as an adult?

A. a person who has completed 21 years of age
B. a person who is less than 19 years of age
C. a person who has completed 24 years of age
D. a person who has completed 18 years of age
Answer» E.
83.

As per the factories act, after how many years should the factory premises be painted and refurbished?

A. 5 years
B. 2 years
C. 10 years
D. annually
Answer» B. 2 years
84.

How many days in advance does the occupier of a factory premises gives notice of occupancy to the chief inspector?

A. 15 days
B. 20 days
C. 10 days
D. 25 days
Answer» B. 20 days
85.

In which year did factories act come into force?

A. 23rd september, 1948
B. 1st april, 1949
C. 4th april, 1949
D. 12th september, 1948
Answer» C. 4th april, 1949
86.

How many central government industrial tribunals cum labour courts in India?

A. 10
B. 9
C. 15
D. 12
Answer» E.
87.

A labour court shall consist of one person who has been a District Judge for a period of not less than ___ years.

A. 3 years
B. 7 years
C. 5 years
D. 10 years
Answer» B. 7 years
88.

__________ has criticised compulsory arbitration on four main grounds.

A. alexander frey
B. v.v. giri
C. mahatma gandhi
D. american labour movement
Answer» B. v.v. giri
89.

Which is the ultimate legal remedy for the settlement of an unresolved dispute?

A. court of enquiry
B. adjudication
C. arbitration
D. national tribunal
Answer» C. arbitration
90.

__________ involves intervention in the dispute by a third party appointed by the government for the purpose of deciding the nature of final settlement.

A. adjudication
B. national tribunal
C. arbitration
D. none of the above
Answer» B. national tribunal
91.

Who is the deciding authority to put the resolving matter into adjudication?

A. disputing parties
B. conciliator
C. trade union
D. government
Answer» E.
92.

The adjudication machinery has to consider not only the demands of _______ justice but also the claims of national economy.

A. economic
B. social
C. freedom of contract
D. none of the above
Answer» C. freedom of contract
93.

The importance of adjudication has been emphasised by the ________.

A. government
B. civil court
C. supreme court
D. none of the above
Answer» D. none of the above
94.

The need for a wide acceptance of voluntary arbitration was reiterated by _____.

A. national tribunal
B. court of enquiry
C. indian labour conference (1962)
D. ilo
Answer» D. ilo
95.

__________ reiterated the faith of the parties in voluntary arbitration.

A. the code of discipline (1958)
B. indian labour conference (1962)
C. ilo
D. industrial disputes act
Answer» B. indian labour conference (1962)
96.

With the advocacy of __________ voluntary arbitration came into prominence for resolving industrial disputes.

A. bombay industrial disputes act
B. mahatma gandhi
C. v. v. giri
D. none of the above
Answer» C. v. v. giri
97.

Which are the departments from where a qualified arbitrator be hired?

A. legal profession
B. government servants
C. psychologists
D. all of the above
Answer» E.
98.

Which of the following is a quality which should be present in a successful arbitrator?

A. high integrity
B. knowledge of collective bargaining
C. understanding of complexities of labour – management relationship
D. all of the above
Answer» C. understanding of complexities of labour – management relationship
99.

Which of these is a condition for which compulsory arbitration is imposed on the disputing parties?

A. when an industrial dispute is apprehended
B. disputing parties fail to arrive at a settlement by a voluntary method
C. the issue of the dispute should be mentioned in the arbitration agreement
D. all of the above
Answer» C. the issue of the dispute should be mentioned in the arbitration agreement
100.

What is the main drawback of compulsory arbitration?

A. compulsory implication of award
B. non - compromising
C. it deprives both the parties of their very important and fundamental rights
D. none of the above
Answer» D. none of the above