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MCQOPTIONS
This section includes 2618 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your UPSC IAS Exam knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.
| 2201. |
The Government of India appointed a Committee on Prevention of Corruption under the chair- man ship of |
| A. | Ananthaswamy Ayyangar |
| B. | P.V. Subbaiah |
| C. | K. Santhanam |
| D. | K. Hanumanthayya |
| Answer» D. K. Hanumanthayya | |
| 2202. |
Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts made a provision with respect to an authoritative text of the Constitution of India in the Hindi language? |
| A. | 56th Amendment Act |
| B. | 58th Amendment Act |
| C. | 54th Amendment Act |
| D. | 55th Amendment Act |
| Answer» C. 54th Amendment Act | |
| 2203. |
Match List I with List II. List I List-II A 89th Amendment 1 Jharkhand joined the Indian Union B 92nd Amendment 2 Right to education C 94th Amendment 3 Separate commission for SC and STS D 86th Amendment 4 Bodo, Dogri, Santhali as recognised languages |
| A. | A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2 |
| B. | A-3 B-4 C-2 D-1 |
| C. | A-3 B-1 C-2 D-4 |
| D. | A-3 B-2 C-1 D-4 |
| Answer» B. A-3 B-4 C-2 D-1 | |
| 2204. |
Which of the following statements is/are not violative of the principle of federalism? 1. The President of India takes over administration of provinces under the emergency provisions. 2. The Parliament of India has exclusive power to make any law with respect to any matter not enumerated in the Concurrent List or State List. 3. The distribution of powers between the Union and Provinces is done through three different lists enumerated in the Constitution of India. Select the correct answer using the code given below: Code: |
| A. | 1 and 2 |
| B. | 2 and 3 |
| C. | 3 only |
| D. | 1 and 3 |
| Answer» C. 3 only | |
| 2205. |
Statutory recognition to the portfolio system was accorded by: |
| A. | Indian Councils Act of 1892 |
| B. | Indian Councils Act of 1871 |
| C. | Indian Councils Act of 1861 |
| D. | Indian Councils Act of 1882 |
| Answer» D. Indian Councils Act of 1882 | |
| 2206. |
Consider the following statements; 1. The President cannot function without the Union Council of Ministers. 2. The Solicitor-General is the highest legal authority of the Union Government. 3. The Union Council of Ministers can function for sometime even after death or resignation of the Prime minister. 4. In the absence of the Prime Minister, only the Home Minister can preside over emergency meetings of the Union Council of Ministers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? |
| A. | Only 1 |
| B. | 3 and 4 |
| C. | 1, 2 and 4 |
| D. | 1, 2, 3 and 4 |
| Answer» B. 3 and 4 | |
| 2207. |
The 93rd Constitution Amendment deals with the: |
| A. | continuation of reservation for backward classes in government employment |
| B. | free and compulsory education for all children between the age of 6 and 14 years |
| C. | reservation of 30 percent posts for women in government recruitments |
| D. | allocation of more number of parliamentary seats for recently created States |
| Answer» C. reservation of 30 percent posts for women in government recruitments | |
| 2208. |
The Finance Commission is appointed usually |
| A. | Every third year |
| B. | Every fourth year |
| C. | Every year |
| D. | Every fifth year |
| Answer» E. | |
| 2209. |
Match List-1 with List-11 and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:List-1List-11 (Amendments to the Constitution)A. The Constitution (Sixty-ninth Amendment) Act, 19911. Establishment of state level Rent TribunalsB. The Constitution (Seventy-fifth Amendment) Act. 19942. No reservations for Scheduled Castes in Panchayats in Arunachal PradeshC. The Constitution (Eighteenth Amendment) Act, 20003. Constitution of Panchayats in Villages or at other local levelD. The Constitution (Eighty-third Amendment) Act, 2000 4. Accepting the recommendations of the Tenth Finance Commission 5. According the status of National Capital Territory to Delhi |
| A. | A - 5 , B - 1 , C - 4 , D - 2 |
| B. | A - 1 , B - 5 , C - 3 , D - 4 |
| C. | A - 5 , B - 1 , C - 3 , D - 4 |
| D. | A - 1 , B - 5 , C - 4 , D - 2 |
| Answer» B. A - 1 , B - 5 , C - 3 , D - 4 | |
| 2210. |
Who appoints the members and chairman of the Finance Commission? |
| A. | The President |
| B. | The Vice-President |
| C. | The Chief Justice of India |
| D. | The Prime Minister |
| Answer» B. The Vice-President | |
| 2211. |
Which part of the Constitution of India contain provisions with respect to the co-operative societies? |
| A. | Part IX |
| B. | Part IX-B |
| C. | Part IX-A |
| D. | Part XI |
| Answer» C. Part IX-A | |
| 2212. |
Which of the following institutions have been set up by Government of India to check M is conduct, malpractices, corruption and misdemeanor on the part of public servants? 1. Central Vigilance Commission 2. Lok pal 3. Special Police Establishment 4. Central Bureau of Investigation Choose the correct answer by using the codes given below: |
| A. | 2 and 3 |
| B. | 1 and 4 |
| C. | 3 and 4 |
| D. | 1, 3 and 4 |
| Answer» E. | |
| 2213. |
Which one of the following is the correct statement? The rule of repugnancy has application in a case where: |
| A. | Both Union and State occupy two different fields in different Lists |
| B. | Both Union and State laws are enacted under the Concurrent List |
| C. | The Union law is enacted under List III and State law is enacted under List II |
| D. | The Union and State laws are enacted under the State List |
| Answer» C. The Union law is enacted under List III and State law is enacted under List II | |
| 2214. |
The population of women in India is nearly |
| A. | 40% of the total population |
| B. | 45% of the total population |
| C. | 50% of the total population |
| D. | 60% of the total population |
| Answer» D. 60% of the total population | |
| 2215. |
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India? |
| A. | It lists the distribution of powers between the Union and the states |
| B. | It contains the languages listed in the Constitution |
| C. | It contains the languages listed in the Constitution |
| D. | It allocates seats in the Council of States |
| Answer» E. | |
| 2216. |
Which of the following statements are correct? 1. Article 368 provides for the amendment procedure. 2. Articles 54 and 55 relate to the electoral process of the Parliament. 3. 4th Schedule provides for the division of powers between Centre and states. 4. The President is bound to sign the amending bills once passed. Codes: |
| A. | 1, 2 |
| B. | 1, 4 |
| C. | 2, 3 |
| D. | 3, 4 |
| Answer» C. 2, 3 | |
| 2217. |
Which of the following condition/conditions must be fulfilled by the NRIs to be eligible to vote in elections in India? 1. They must be physically present in their place of origin to exercise their franchise. 2. NRIs whether they have acquired citizenship of other countries or not are eligible to vote. 3. Eligible NRIs have to register by filling up form 6-A with electoral registration office. Select the correct answer using the codes given below |
| A. | 1, 2 and 3 |
| B. | 1 and 3 |
| C. | Only 2 |
| D. | Only 3 |
| Answer» B. 1 and 3 | |
| 2218. |
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below: List-I (Amendment of the constitution) List-II (Purpose of the Amendment) A. 53rd Amendment 1. Extension of reservation for SCs and STs and Anglo-Indians in the House of People and in the State Assemblies for a period of ten years B. 61st Amendment 2. Special provisions for Mizoram C. 74th Amendment 3. Lowering of voting age from 21 to 18 D. 79th Amendment 4. Constitution of three types of Municipalities Codes: |
| A. | A-2 B-4 C-3 D-1 |
| B. | A-1 B-3 C-4 D-2 |
| C. | A-2 B-3 C-4 D-1 |
| D. | A-1 B-4 C-3 D-2 |
| Answer» D. A-1 B-4 C-3 D-2 | |
| 2219. |
The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed by |
| A. | The President whenever he likes |
| B. | The Prime Minister whenever he likes |
| C. | The manner in which a Supreme Court judge is removed |
| D. | The Parliament through a resolution |
| Answer» D. The Parliament through a resolution | |
| 2220. |
The forms of oaths or affirmations for which of the following officials are mentioned in the third schedule of the Indian constitution? - 1. The Comptroller and Auditor General 2. The Chief Election Commissioner 3. The Chief Justice of a High Court 4. The Attorney General Select the correct answer using the codes given below: |
| A. | 1 and 2 only |
| B. | 1, 2 and 3 only |
| C. | 2, 3 and 4 only |
| D. | 1 and 3 only |
| Answer» E. | |
| 2221. |
How can one describe the National Backward Classes Commission? |
| A. | It is created by the Central Cabinet. |
| B. | It is the product of Parliament. |
| C. | It is the result of a judicial verdict, especially of the case of Indira Sahwney v Union of India. |
| D. | It is a constitutional body. |
| Answer» E. | |
| 2222. |
Consider the following statements related to Article 368 of the Constitution: 1. A Constitutional Amendment Bill can be passed at a joint session of Parliament in case of deadlock between the two Houses. 2. It is obligatory for the President of India to give his assent to a Constitutional Amendment Bill passed under Article 368. 3. To amend 7th Schedule of the Constitution, ratification of more than half of the State legislatures is essential. 4. A proposal to amend the Constitution can only be introduced in the House of the People. Which of these are correct? |
| A. | 1 and 2 |
| B. | 1 and 3 |
| C. | 2 and 3 |
| D. | 1, 2 and 3 |
| Answer» D. 1, 2 and 3 | |
| 2223. |
Consider the following and choose the code giving the correct statements. 1. The President has the power to promulgate ordinances during the recess of Parliament. 2. The Governor of a state too has the power to issue ordinances during recess of the state legisture. 3. These powers were enhanced through the 37th Amendment Act (1975). 4. The Higher Courts can-not challenge the above mentioned powers during period of emergency Codes: |
| A. | 1, 2, 3 |
| B. | 1, 2, 4 |
| C. | 1, 3, 4 |
| D. | 1, 2, 3, 4 |
| Answer» C. 1, 3, 4 | |
| 2224. |
_________ headed the Drafting Committee of me Constitution? |
| A. | Sachchidanand Sinha |
| B. | B.N. Rao |
| C. | Jawaharlal Nehru |
| D. | B.R. Ambedkar |
| Answer» E. | |
| 2225. |
Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India need the ratification by the legislatures of not less than one-half of the states to effect amendment?1. The manner of election of the President of India.2. Extent of the executive power of the Union and the states.3. Powers of the Supreme Court and High Courts.Select the correct answer using the codes given below |
| A. | 1, 2, 3 and 4 |
| B. | 1, 2 and 3 |
| C. | 3 and 4 |
| D. | 1 and 2 |
| Answer» B. 1, 2 and 3 | |
| 2226. |
Which one of the following Amendments of the Constitution of India deals with the issue of strengthening of the Panchayati Raj? |
| A. | 42nd |
| B. | 44th |
| C. | 73rd |
| D. | 86th |
| Answer» D. 86th | |
| 2227. |
Statement I: The Chief Minister of a State can exercise control over other branches of Government through a coterie of advisors. Statement II: The Chief Minister and his Cabinet function on the basis of collective responsibility. Codes: |
| A. | Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I |
| B. | Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I |
| C. | Statement I is true but Statement II is false |
| D. | Statement I is false but Statement II is true |
| Answer» E. | |
| 2228. |
The Montague-Chelmsford Proposals were related to |
| A. | social reforms [IAS Prelims 2016] |
| B. | educational reforms |
| C. | reforms in police administration |
| D. | constitutional reforms |
| Answer» E. | |
| 2229. |
Through which of the following amendment do the members of the legislature take oath to uphold the unity and integration of the state? |
| A. | 16th |
| B. | 23rd |
| C. | 42nd |
| D. | 44th |
| Answer» B. 23rd | |
| 2230. |
In which of the following case have fundamental rights been described as a part of the basic structure of the constitution? |
| A. | Indira Nehru Gandhi v Raj Narain (1975) |
| B. | Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) |
| C. | Woman Rao v Union of India (1981) |
| D. | Indra Sawhney v Union of India (1993) |
| Answer» B. Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) | |
| 2231. |
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below: List-I (cabinet committees) List-II (Functions) A. Appointments committee 1. Looks after the progress of government business in the parliament B. Economic affairs committee 2. Deals with all policy matters pertaining to domestic and foreign affairs C. Parliamentary Affairs committee 3. Decides all higher level appointment in the central secretariat D. Political affairs committee 4. Directs and coordinates the government activities in eh economic sphere Codes: |
| A. | A-3 B-2 C-4 D-1 |
| B. | A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2 |
| C. | A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1 |
| D. | A-4 B-2 C-1 D-3 |
| Answer» C. A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1 | |
| 2232. |
Who among the following was the Finance Minister of India in the Interim Government during 1946-1947? |
| A. | R K Shanmukham Chetty |
| B. | John Mathai |
| C. | Liaquat Ali Khan |
| D. | Chintamanrao Deshmukh |
| Answer» D. Chintamanrao Deshmukh | |
| 2233. |
Under the Citizenship Act, 1955, by which of the following ways can a person become a citizen of India? 1. By birth 2. By descent 3. By registration 4. By nationalisation 5. By incorporation of territory Select the correct answer using the codes given below: |
| A. | 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 |
| B. | 1 and 2 |
| C. | 1, 2, 3 and 5 |
| D. | 3, 4 and 5 |
| Answer» D. 3, 4 and 5 | |
| 2234. |
Among the following ideals and philosophy, identify those enshrined in the Preamble to the Constitution of India. 1. Sovereign democratic republic. 2. Socialism and secularism. 3. Capitalism and free trade. Select the correct answer using the codes given below |
| A. | 1 and 2 |
| B. | 1 and 3 |
| C. | 1, 2 and 3 |
| D. | 2 and 3 |
| Answer» B. 1 and 3 | |
| 2235. |
Which one of the following statements is correct with regard to the office of the Attorney General of India? |
| A. | He shall have the right of audience in all the Courts within the territory of India. |
| B. | He shall perform his dudes only in the Supreme Court. |
| C. | He enjoys a fixed tenure. |
| D. | The President appoints a person who is qualified to be a judge of a High Court, to be the Attorney General of India. |
| Answer» B. He shall perform his dudes only in the Supreme Court. | |
| 2236. |
The institution of Lokayukta has not been instituted in the following state |
| A. | Uttarakhand |
| B. | Nagaland |
| C. | Chhattisgarh |
| D. | Karnataka |
| Answer» C. Chhattisgarh | |
| 2237. |
If the upper chamber of a state has to be established, at whose instance is it done? |
| A. | At the instance of the President |
| B. | At the instance of the concerned state assembly |
| C. | At instance of the concerned state Governor |
| D. | At instance of the Prime Minister |
| Answer» C. At instance of the concerned state Governor | |
| 2238. |
The Advocate General of a State enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to: |
| A. | A member of the State Legislature |
| B. | A member of the Parliament of India |
| C. | Governor of the State |
| D. | President of India |
| Answer» B. A member of the Parliament of India | |
| 2239. |
Consider the following statements:1. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India has no control over the issue of money from the Consolidated Fund of India.2. The term of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India has been fixed by an Act enacted by Parliament.Which of the statement(s) given above is / are correct? |
| A. | Only 1 |
| B. | Only 2 |
| C. | Both 1 and 2 |
| D. | Neither 1 nor 2 |
| Answer» D. Neither 1 nor 2 | |
| 2240. |
Which of the following do not constitute members of the Niti Aayog? Choose the correct code. 1. Some experts as special invitees 2. Full time organizational members 3. Vice-Chairperson 4. Ex-officio members 5. Speaker of the Lok Sabha 6. The Vice-President of India 7. Chief Executive Officer |
| A. | 1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 7 |
| B. | 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 |
| C. | 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 1 |
| D. | 1, 2, 3, 4, 7 |
| Answer» E. | |
| 2241. |
Which Finance Commission recommended 42% of the Union's tax revenue for the states? |
| A. | 11th |
| B. | 12th |
| C. | 13th |
| D. | 14th |
| Answer» E. | |
| 2242. |
The idea of the Union giving directions to the States was adopted by the makers of the Indian Constitution from: |
| A. | The Government of India Act, 1935 |
| B. | The US Constitution |
| C. | The Soviet Constitution |
| D. | The Australian Constitution |
| Answer» B. The US Constitution | |
| 2243. |
The amending bill is presented to the President who has the power to: |
| A. | Withhold it |
| B. | Refuse to give his assent |
| C. | Return it to the originating House |
| D. | Give it his/her assent |
| Answer» E. | |
| 2244. |
Through which amendment was the National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes bifurcated into two separate commissions? |
| A. | 89th Amendment, 2003 |
| B. | 90th Amendment, 2003 |
| C. | 91th Amendment, 2003 |
| D. | 92th Amendment, 2003 |
| Answer» B. 90th Amendment, 2003 | |
| 2245. |
Who among the following are members of a committee that recommends the appointment of the Chief Information Commissioner? 1. Prime Minister 2. Leader of opposition in the Lok Sabha 3. Leader of opposition in the Rajya Sabha 4. Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister 5. Speaker of the Lok Sabha Select the correct answer using the codes given below: |
| A. | 1, 2 and 4 |
| B. | 1, 2, 3 and 5 |
| C. | 1, 2, 3 and 4 |
| D. | 1, 2 and 5 |
| Answer» B. 1, 2, 3 and 5 | |
| 2246. |
Consider the following statements and choose the correct code: 1. There is a provision for seeking referendum in the amendment of certain aspects of basic structure. 2. The people in India can initiate amendment proposals. |
| A. | 1 is true but 2 is false, |
| B. | 2 is true but 1 is false. |
| C. | 1 and 2 both are true. |
| D. | 1 and 2 both are false. |
| Answer» E. | |
| 2247. |
Which Constitutional Article deals with 'Representation of the Anglo-Indian Community' with House of the People? |
| A. | Article 334 |
| B. | Article 331 |
| C. | Article 332 |
| D. | Article 333 |
| Answer» C. Article 332 | |
| 2248. |
Which of the following statements with regard to the Federal System is/are correct?1. In a federation, two sets of government's co- exist and there is distribution of power.2. There is a written constitution.Select the correct answer using the code given below: |
| A. | 1 only |
| B. | 2 only |
| C. | Both 1 and 2 |
| D. | Neither 1 or 2 |
| Answer» D. Neither 1 or 2 | |
| 2249. |
Consider the following statements 1. In India, only two Union Territories have Legislative Assemblies. 2. Mizoram, Nagaland and Meghalaya, the three North-Eastern States of India, have only one seat each is the Lok Sabha. Which of the statements) given above is/are correct? |
| A. | Only 1 |
| B. | Only 2 |
| C. | Both 1 and 2 |
| D. | Neither 1 nor 2 |
| Answer» B. Only 2 | |
| 2250. |
The 14th Amendment (1962) created legislative assemblies in one of the following groups. Which one was it? |
| A. | Puducherry, Tripura, Manipur, Goa |
| B. | Goa, Tripura, Manipur, Himachal Pradesh |
| C. | Himachal Pradesh, Goa, Tripura, Puducherry |
| D. | Puducherry, Manipur, Himachal Pradesh, Goa |
| Answer» C. Himachal Pradesh, Goa, Tripura, Puducherry | |