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MCQOPTIONS
This section includes 2618 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your UPSC IAS Exam knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.
| 2301. |
Statement I: The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBl) is a statutory body. Statement II: The CBI derives its powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946. Codes: |
| A. | Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I. |
| B. | Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I. |
| C. | Statement I is true but Statement II is false. |
| D. | Statement I is false but Statement II is true. |
| Answer» E. | |
| 2302. |
Which of the following provided for the establishment of the Central Information Commission? |
| A. | An order of the Supreme Court |
| B. | A resolution of the Parliament |
| C. | An Act of the Parliament |
| D. | A resolution of the Union Cabinet |
| Answer» D. A resolution of the Union Cabinet | |
| 2303. |
Consider the following statements with regard to the amendment procedure and select the correct code. 1. Referendum is optional and not obligatory. 2. Referendum is obligatory. 3. Referendum is neither optional nor obligatory. |
| A. | Only 1 is correct, |
| B. | Only 2 is correct. |
| C. | Only 3 is correct, |
| D. | none of the above |
| Answer» D. none of the above | |
| 2304. |
Which one of the following is not the regulatory function of the UPSC? |
| A. | The UPSC conducts examinations for appointment of candidates to the services of the Union. |
| B. | It conducts interviews for the selection of candidates for specialized services. |
| C. | It helps prepare rules for methods of recruitment. |
| D. | It takes all disciplinary action affecting government employees. |
| Answer» D. It takes all disciplinary action affecting government employees. | |
| 2305. |
Which of the following is/are correctly matched? 1. Duty levied by the union but collected and appropriated by the states : Succession duty and estate duty in respect of property other than agricultural land 2. Taxes levied and collected by the union but assigned to the states : Stamp duties and duties of excise on medicinal and toilet preparations Choose the correct answer from the codes given below: |
| A. | Only 1 |
| B. | Only 2 |
| C. | Both 1 and 2 |
| D. | Neither 1 nor 2 |
| Answer» E. | |
| 2306. |
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below: List-I (Article) List-II (subject) A. Article 50 1. Impeachment of the president B. Article 143 2. Separation between judiciary and executive C. Article 61 3. Functions of public service commissions D. Article 320 4. Advisory jurisdiction of the supreme court Codes: |
| A. | A-2 B-4 C-1 D-3 |
| B. | A-3 B-1 C-4 D-2 |
| C. | A-2 B-1 C-4 D-3 |
| D. | A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2 |
| Answer» B. A-3 B-1 C-4 D-2 | |
| 2307. |
Which of the following amendments restricts the number of the ministers to 15% of the total membership of the House of the People? |
| A. | 80th |
| B. | 90th |
| C. | 91st |
| D. | 92nd |
| Answer» D. 92nd | |
| 2308. |
Consider the following statements relating to amendment under Article 368 and choose the correct one: |
| A. | The required majority in each House of the Parliament has to be those of only who are present. |
| B. | The required majority of each House has to be only of those voting. |
| C. | The required majority of each House has to be those of the total strength of each House. |
| D. | The required majority of each House has to be those who are both present and voting. |
| Answer» E. | |
| 2309. |
Choose the correct answer 1. Charter Act of 1833 created the post Governor General of India. 2. Charter Act, 1833 deprived the Governors of Bombay and Madras their legislative powers. 3. Charter Act, 1853 introduced open competitive system for recruitment of civil servants. 4. Macaulay Committee on the Indian Police Service was formed in 1854 and it drafted the Indian Police Act, 1861. |
| A. | Only 1, 2 is correct |
| B. | Only 1, 3 is correct |
| C. | Only 1, 2, 3 is correct |
| D. | 1,2,3,4 is correct |
| Answer» D. 1,2,3,4 is correct | |
| 2310. |
Consider the following statements: 1. Originally, the Constitution of India did not make any provision with respect to an authoritative text of the Constitution in the Hindi language. 2. Later, a provision in this regard was made in 1978. Which of the statements given above is / are correct? |
| A. | Only 1 |
| B. | Only 2 |
| C. | Both 1 and 2 |
| D. | Neither 1 nor 2 |
| Answer» B. Only 2 | |
| 2311. |
Which of the following amendments provides for 29% of the total proceeds of the Union budget to the states? |
| A. | 80th |
| B. | 81st |
| C. | 82nd |
| D. | 83rd |
| Answer» B. 81st | |
| 2312. |
An Information Commissioner can be removed from the office by the President on the advise / recommendation of the: |
| A. | Supreme Court |
| B. | Parliament |
| C. | Central Vigilance Commission |
| D. | Union Public Service Commission |
| Answer» B. Parliament | |
| 2313. |
The salient features of the Government of India Act, 1935 are: 1. All India Federation 2. Provincial Autonomy 3. Dyarchy at the Centre 4. Abolition of Dyarchy in the states Which of the above is/are correct? |
| A. | 1 and 2 |
| B. | 1, 2 and 3 |
| C. | 2, 3 and 4 |
| D. | 1, 2, 3 and 4 |
| Answer» E. | |
| 2314. |
"The Draft Constitution as framed only provides a machinery for the government of the country. It is not a contrivance to install any particular party in power as has been done in some countries. Who should be in power is left to be determined by the people, as it must be, if the system is to satisfy the test of democracy'. The above passage from Constituent Assembly debates is attributed to |
| A. | Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru |
| B. | Dr B R Ambedkar |
| C. | Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad |
| D. | Acharya J B Kriplani |
| Answer» C. Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad | |
| 2315. |
The constituent power of Parliament to amend the Constitution: |
| A. | Includes power to amend by way of addition, variation or repeal of the provision of the Constitution |
| B. | Is unrestricted by any inherent and implied limitations |
| C. | Is not procedurally limited and restricted |
| D. | Is extra-constituent |
| Answer» B. Is unrestricted by any inherent and implied limitations | |
| 2316. |
Assertion (A): The second Commission on Centre-State relations was constituted by the Government of India by amending the Constitution of India and thus a constitutional status was bestowed on it. Reason (R): Issues like role of Governors economic and social planning which were a part of the terms of reference of the Commission are very important issues in the governance of India. Codes: |
| A. | Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A |
| B. | Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A |
| C. | A is true but R is false |
| D. | A is false but R is true |
| Answer» E. | |
| 2317. |
The number of official languages recognized under 8th schedule of the Indian Constitution is |
| A. | Sixteen |
| B. | Seventeen |
| C. | Twenty |
| D. | Twenty Two |
| Answer» E. | |
| 2318. |
The Supreme Court invalidated a provision of the Forty-Second Amendment Act, which enlarged: the scope of Article 368 to amend Fundamental Rights on the ground that the: |
| A. | Requisite number of States had not ratified the amendment |
| B. | Amendment has been enacted during the emergency |
| C. | Amendment abrogated a basic feature of the Constitution |
| D. | Rajya Sabha had not passed the amendment with the prescribed majority |
| Answer» D. Rajya Sabha had not passed the amendment with the prescribed majority | |
| 2319. |
Consider the following statements: 1. The non-cabinet ministers are debarred from the membership of the Cabinet Committees. 2. The Cabinet Committees are an organizational device to reduce the enormous workload of the cabinet. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? |
| A. | Only 1 |
| B. | Only 2 |
| C. | Both 1 and 2 |
| D. | Neither 1 nor 2 |
| Answer» C. Both 1 and 2 | |
| 2320. |
Consider the following provisions-1. Free & compulsory education to all children below 14 years of age.2. Right to elementary Education.3. Ban on employment of children below the age of 14 in hazardous industries & factories.Which provision comes under Article 24? |
| A. | 1 & 2 |
| B. | 2 & 3 |
| C. | only 3 |
| D. | None of the above |
| Answer» D. None of the above | |
| 2321. |
The Constitution (98th Amendment) Act is related to: |
| A. | empowering the Centre to levy and appropriate service tax |
| B. | the constitution of the National Judicial Commission |
| C. | readjustment of electoral constituencies on the basis of the population census 2001 |
| D. | the demarcation of new boundaries between States. |
| Answer» C. readjustment of electoral constituencies on the basis of the population census 2001 | |
| 2322. |
Which of the following amendment rationalises the privileges enjoyed by the civil services? |
| A. | 24th |
| B. | 28th |
| C. | 29th |
| D. | 42nd |
| Answer» C. 29th | |
| 2323. |
Assertion (A): The Chief Minister of a State is the head of the Council of Ministers of that State. Reason (R): The Chief Minister is responsible to the State Legislative Assembly and enjoys the support of a majority in the House. Codes: |
| A. | Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A |
| B. | Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A |
| C. | A is true but R is false |
| D. | A is false but R is true |
| Answer» B. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A | |
| 2324. |
How many officials comprise is the Election Commission today? |
| A. | One |
| B. | Two |
| C. | Three |
| D. | Five |
| Answer» D. Five | |
| 2325. |
The Committee which recommends the names of the members of CVC consists of: |
| A. | The Prime Minister |
| B. | The Home Minister |
| C. | The Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha |
| D. | All of the above |
| Answer» E. | |
| 2326. |
How is the NCST constituted? |
| A. | One Chairperson and three members |
| B. | One Chairperson, the Vice-Chairperson and two members |
| C. | One Chairperson, one Vice-Chairperson and three members |
| D. | One Chairperson and four members |
| Answer» D. One Chairperson and four members | |
| 2327. |
Consider the following and choose the correct code: 1. NHRC has sought to abolish bonded labour. 2. It has taken up the cases relating to disabled persons. |
| A. | Only 1 is true. |
| B. | Only 2 is true. |
| C. | 1 and 2 both are true. |
| D. | 1 and 2 both are false. |
| Answer» D. 1 and 2 both are false. | |
| 2328. |
Consider the following statements: 1. All decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the Union must be communicated to the President. 2. The President can call for information relating to proposals for legislation. 3. The President can direct that any matter on which decision has been taken by a Minister should be placed before the Council of Ministers. 4. The President has the right to address and send messages to the Council of Ministers to elicit specific information. Which of these is / are correct? |
| A. | Only 1 |
| B. | 3 and 4 |
| C. | 1, 2 and 3 |
| D. | 1, 2, 3 and 4 |
| Answer» D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 | |
| 2329. |
In a parliamentary form of Government, ministers are appointed by: |
| A. | The head of the state at his discretion |
| B. | The head of the government |
| C. | The head of die state on the recommendations of the head of die government |
| D. | The legislature |
| Answer» D. The legislature | |
| 2330. |
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below: List-I List- II (Types of government) (characteristics) A. Parliamentary government 1. Centralization of powers B. Presidential government 2. Division of powers C. Federal system 3. Separation of powers D. Unitary system 4. Collective responsibility Codes: |
| A. | A-2 B-1 C-4 D-3 |
| B. | A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1 |
| C. | A-2 B-3 C-4 D-1 |
| D. | A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3 |
| Answer» C. A-2 B-3 C-4 D-1 | |
| 2331. |
Which one of the following is not a function of the Committee on Subordinate Legislation? |
| A. | To evolve a systematic pattern of the terms of delegation |
| B. | To improve the methods of publicity of the rules |
| C. | To lay down rules and regulations on the table of the House |
| D. | To achieve uniformity in rule-making procedures |
| Answer» D. To achieve uniformity in rule-making procedures | |
| 2332. |
Which one of the following Parliamentary Committees act as a 'watchdog' on departmental ex- pedicures and irregularities? |
| A. | Estimates Committee |
| B. | Committee on Public Undertakings |
| C. | Public Accounts Committee |
| D. | Committee on Government Assurances |
| Answer» D. Committee on Government Assurances | |
| 2333. |
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below: List-I (parliamentary committees) List-II (Functions) A. Rules committee 1. Examination of appropriation Accounts B. Public Accounts committee 2. Considers matters of procedure in the House C. Committee on subordinate legislation 3. Examination of rules made by the executive departments under the acts passed by the parliament D. Committee on public Undertakings 4. Review of the working of the public sector undertakings 5. Control of the department of public enterprises Codes: |
| A. | A-1 B-2 C-3 D-5 |
| B. | A-2 B-1 C-3 D-4 |
| C. | A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2 |
| D. | A-5 B-1 C-2 D-3 |
| Answer» C. A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2 | |
| 2334. |
Consider the following statements: 1. The Parliamentary Committee on Empowerment of Women was constituted in 1997 2. The parliamentary committee on empowerment of women consists of 20 members of the Lok Sabha and 10 members of the Rajya Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? |
| A. | Only 1 |
| B. | Only 2 |
| C. | Both 1 and |
| D. | Neither 1 nor 2 |
| Answer» D. Neither 1 nor 2 | |
| 2335. |
Which of the following statements does not reflect the jurisdiction of the Estimates Committee? |
| A. | It suggests alternative policies in order to bring efficiency and economy in administration |
| B. | It examines whether the money is well laid out within the limits of the policy implied in the estimates |
| C. | It suggests the form in which estimates are to be presented to Parliament |
| D. | It helps in checking Governmental extravagance in making demands as its report is debated in the House |
| Answer» E. | |
| 2336. |
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below: List-I (Terms) List-II (implications) A. Voting on the demands for grants 1. Prior consent for the president B. Budget 2. Not subject to vote of parliament C. Money Bill 3. An instrument of socio ? economic change D. Charged expenditure 4. Enactment of budget 5. Public accounts committee Codes: |
| A. | A-4 B-3 C-1 D-2 |
| B. | A-3 B-4 C-2 D-5 |
| C. | A-1 B-3 C-4 D-2 |
| D. | A-1 B-3 C-4 D-2 |
| Answer» B. A-3 B-4 C-2 D-5 | |
| 2337. |
Statement I: Usually a vote on account is discussed in detail and voted upon by the Parliament. Statement II: A vote on account empowers the Lok Sabha to make a grant in advance for a part of the financial year pending completion of the budgetary process. Codes: |
| A. | Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I. |
| B. | Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I. |
| C. | Statement I is true but Statement II is false. |
| D. | Statement I is false but Statement II is true. |
| Answer» E. | |
| 2338. |
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below: List-I (grants) List-II (meanings) A. Vote on account 1. Lumpsum money granted without detailed estimates B. Vote on credit 2. Additional expenditure not covered in the approved budget C. Supplementary demand for grants 3. Amount spent in excess of the grants D. Excess demand for grants 4. Grants in advance pending budgetary; approval Codes: |
| A. | A-1 B-4 C-3 D-2 |
| B. | A-4 B-4 C-2 D-3 |
| C. | A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3 |
| D. | A-4 B-1 C-3 D-2 |
| Answer» D. A-4 B-1 C-3 D-2 | |
| 2339. |
Which one of the following statements is correct with regard to the power of Parliament in enacting the Budget? |
| A. | It can increase a tax, but not reduce it. |
| B. | It can increase a tax, as well as reduce or abolish it. |
| C. | It cannot increase a tax, but can reduce or abolish it. |
| D. | It can neither increase a tax nor reduce it. |
| Answer» D. It can neither increase a tax nor reduce it. | |
| 2340. |
The Joint Session of the two Houses of the Parliament is chaired by the: |
| A. | Vice-President of India |
| B. | Speaker of the House of the People |
| C. | Chairman of the Rajya Sabha |
| D. | Prime Minister of India |
| Answer» C. Chairman of the Rajya Sabha | |
| 2341. |
Which of the following is not correct with regard to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha? |
| A. | The Speaker certifies whether a particular bill is money bill or not. |
| B. | Discussion on a motion for the removal of the Speaker is presided over by the Vice-President. |
| C. | The Speaker has power to curtail or cancel the zero hour. |
| D. | The Speaker nominates chairpersons of various committees. |
| Answer» C. The Speaker has power to curtail or cancel the zero hour. | |
| 2342. |
Who among the following decides whether a Bill is a Money Bill? |
| A. | The Finance Minister |
| B. | The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha |
| C. | The President of India |
| D. | The Speaker of the Lok Sabha |
| Answer» E. | |
| 2343. |
Consider the following statements in respect of provisions for removing deadlock between the two Houses of Parliament: After a bill has been passed by one House and transmitted to the other House, the President may notify to the Houses his intention to summon them for a joint sitting, if: 1. The Bill is rejected by the other House. 2. The Houses have finally disagreed as to the amendments to be made in the Bill. 3. More than three months have elapsed from the date of the receipt of the Bill by the other House without the Bill being passed by it. Which of the statements given above are correct? |
| A. | 1, 2 and 3 |
| B. | 1 and 2 only |
| C. | 2 and 3 only |
| D. | 1 and 3 only |
| Answer» C. 2 and 3 only | |
| 2344. |
Under Article 312 of the Constitution of India, the Rajya Sabha has exclusive power to recommend the Constitution of which one of the following? |
| A. | River-valley Development Authorities |
| B. | Zonal Councils |
| C. | Administrative Tribunals |
| D. | New All-India Services |
| Answer» E. | |
| 2345. |
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given stages in relation to the enactment of the budget? |
| A. | Voting of demands for grants-General discussion-Consideration and passing of the Appropriation Bill-Consideration and passing of the Finance Bill |
| B. | General discussion-Voting of demands for grants-Consideration and passing of the Appropriation Bill-Consideration and passing of the Finance Bill |
| C. | Voting of demands for grants-Consideration and passing of the Appropriation Bill- Consideration and passing of the Finance Bill-General discussion |
| D. | General discussion-Consideration and passing of the Finance Bill-Consideration and passing of the Appropriation Bill-Voting of demands for grants |
| Answer» C. Voting of demands for grants-Consideration and passing of the Appropriation Bill- Consideration and passing of the Finance Bill-General discussion | |
| 2346. |
When Demands for Grants are introduced in Lok Sabha, the Speaker applies the guillotine: |
| A. | After the demands are discussed and approved |
| B. | After the demands are discussed and voted down by Lok Sabha |
| C. | When the demands are discussed and reduced |
| D. | When the time allotted is coming to a close |
| Answer» E. | |
| 2347. |
Consider the following statements: 1. After the demands for grants in the Annual Financial Statement are voted by the Lok Sabha, the grants so made as well as the expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India are incorporated in the Annual Finance Bill. 2. The taxing proposals of the budget are included in an Appropriation Bill. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? |
| A. | Only 1 |
| B. | Only 2 |
| C. | Both 1 and 2 |
| D. | Neither 1 nor 2 |
| Answer» E. | |
| 2348. |
In 1955, the President appointed an Official Language Commission under the chairmanship of: |
| A. | G.B. Pant |
| B. | S.K. Dhar |
| C. | B.G. Kher |
| D. | H.N. Kunzru |
| Answer» D. H.N. Kunzru | |
| 2349. |
How much time is given for a short notice question? |
| A. | More than ten days |
| B. | Less than ten days |
| C. | More than one month |
| D. | Less than two months |
| Answer» C. More than one month | |
| 2350. |
Of which Lok Sabha it is said, that it had completed its term? |
| A. | Fourth Lok Sabha |
| B. | Fifth Lok Sabha |
| C. | Sixth Lok Sabha |
| D. | Seventh Lok Sabha |
| Answer» C. Sixth Lok Sabha | |