Explore topic-wise MCQs in UPSC IAS Exam.

This section includes 2618 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your UPSC IAS Exam knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

Who presides over the chief secretaries? conference?

A. The President of India
B. The Prime Minister of India
C. The Cabinet Secretary
D. The Secretary of the Prime Minister's office
Answer» D. The Secretary of the Prime Minister's office
2.

49. Which one is not the component of the 'Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojna'?

A. Elementary Education
B. Primary health
C. (e) Rural Road
D. Nutrition
Answer» E.
3.

Who governs the natural resources of the Scheduled Areas not covered by the 73rd Amendment?

A. Gram Panchayat
B. Gram Sabha
C. Panchayat Samiti
D. Zila Parishad
Answer» D. Zila Parishad
4.

Consider the following statements and choose the correct code: 1. The Governor has discretionary powers for Kohima. 2. The Governor has discretionary powers for Tuensang.

A. Only 1 is true.
B. Only 2 is true
C. 1 and 2 both are true.
D. 1 and 2 both are false.
Answer» C. 1 and 2 both are true.
5.

The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India must come from

A. The President of India
B. The Parliament of India
C. The Prime Minister of India
D. The Union Finance Minister
Answer» C. The Prime Minister of India
6.

The Sixth Schedule is concerned with the administration of the tribal areas of the following groups of states:

A. Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram
B. Meghalaya, Manipura, Tripura and Mizoram
C. Manipura, Tripura, Mizoram and Assam
D. Meghalaya, Jharkhand, Uttrakhand, Mizoram
Answer» B. Meghalaya, Manipura, Tripura and Mizoram
7.

How can functions of the Union Public Service Commission be extended in respect of the services of the Union and also in respect of the services of any local authority or other body corporate constituted by law or of any public institution?

A. By the President
B. By the resolution of the Union Government
C. By an Act of Parliament
D. By the Union Home Minister
Answer» D. By the Union Home Minister
8.

2. In appointing a Governor, the President consults the Chief Minister of the State as this is:

A. constitutionally imperative
B. a convention
C. as Parliament has legislated to the effect
D. A duty of the President
Answer» C. as Parliament has legislated to the effect
9.

If the Prime Minister is a member of the Rajya Sabha

A. He/she has to get elected to the Lok Sabha within 6 months
B. He/she can declare the government's policies only in the Rajya Sabha
C. He/she cannot take part in the voting when a vote of confidence is under consideration
D. He/she cannot take part in the budget deliberation in the Lok Sabha
Answer» D. He/she cannot take part in the budget deliberation in the Lok Sabha
10.

Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts made a provision for the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities?

A. Fourth Amendment Act
B. Seventh Amendment Act
C. Thirteenth Amendment Act
D. Fifteenth Amendment Act
Answer» C. Thirteenth Amendment Act
11.

The duties of the Prime Minister are given in the following Article:

A. Article 75
B. Article 76
C. Article 77
D. Article 78
Answer» E.
12.

According to Article 371-A of the Constitution of India, the Governor of which one of the fol- lowing States has special responsibility with respect to law and order in the State?

A. Assam
B. Manipur
C. Nagaland
D. Andhra Pradesh
Answer» D. Andhra Pradesh
13.

When a bill is sent by the Governor to the President for his consideration, he does not have one of the following powers which one is it?

A. He can give his assent.
B. He can withhold his assent.
C. He can send the bill back to the state legislature for consideration.
D. He can send it back to the Governor.
Answer» E.
14.

Which of the following statements are correct. 1. If a MLA is elected to be a MP his seat in parliament becomes vacant if he does not resign his seat in the state legislature within 14 days. 2. If a person is elected to two seats in a house he should exercise his option for one. Otherwise both seats become vacant.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both
D. None
Answer» D. None
15.

Consider the following statements and choose the correct code with regard to the recommendations of Ashoka Mehta Committee. 1. Panchayati Raj be appointed to look after the affairs of the PRIs 2. Seats for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribe be reserved on the basis of their population

A. 1 is true but 2 is false,
B. 2 is true but 1 is false.
C. 1 and 2 both are true.
D. 1 and 2 both are false.
Answer» D. 1 and 2 both are false.
16.

One of the following is wrongly matched?

A. First Schedule     :   Names of the states
B. Fifth Schedule    :   Administration and control of Scheduled Classes and Scheduled Tribes
C. Eighth                           :   Languages
D. Twelfth                          :   18 Items included for urban local bodies to make laws.
Answer» C. Eighth                           :   Languages
17.

How is the Vice-President of India elected?

A. By the elected members of the Parliament
B. By all the members of the Parliament
C. By the elected members of the legislative assemblies
D. By the elected members of the Lok Sabha
Answer» C. By the elected members of the legislative assemblies
18.

The word 'sovereignty' incorporated in the Constitution means: 1. Independent authority of the state 2. Subject only to the United Nations 3. Powers to legislate on any subject

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer» C. 2 and 3
19.

Which of the following Committees are the Committees of Parliament? 1.   Public Accounts Committee 2.   Estimates Committee 3.   Committee on Public Undertakings Select the correct answer using the code given below

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer» E.
20.

Which of the following principles is/are taken into consideration by the Speaker while recognising a parliamentary party or group?                                      [CSAT-2014] 1. An association of members who have an organisation both inside and outside the House 2. An association of members who shall have at least one-third of the total number of members of the House 3. An association of members who have a distinct programme of parliamentary work Select the correct answer using the codes given below

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. Only 1
C. 1 and 3
D. 2 and 3
Answer» D. 2 and 3
21.

The Provincial Constitution Committee was headed by:

A. Rajendra Prasad
B. Jawaharlal Nehru
C. Vallabhbhai Patel
D. K. M. Munshi
Answer» C. Vallabhbhai Patel
22.

The Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of:

A. Members of both Houses of Parliament
B. Elected members of both Houses of Parliament
C. Elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the State Legislative Assemblies
D. Members of both Houses of Parliament and the State Legislative Assemblies
Answer» B. Elected members of both Houses of Parliament
23.

26. Which of the following are matters on a which a Constitutional Amendment is possible only with me ratification of the legislatures of not less than one-half of the states? 1. Election of the President 2. Representation of states in Parliament, 3. Any of the lists in the seventh Schedule 4. Abolition of the Legislative Council of a state Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1, 2 and 4
C. 1, 3 and 4
D. 2, 3 and 4
Answer» B. 1, 2 and 4
24.

For which of the following regions has a separate development board in Maharashtra been established?

A. Vidarabha
B. Marathwada
C. a' and 'b'
D. none of the above
Answer» D. none of the above
25.

Assertion (A): UPSC is an independent organisation. Reason (R): UPSC is a constitutional body. Codes:

A. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
Answer» B. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
26.

Consider the following and choose the correct code: 1. The Union Council of Ministers has to have a fixed strength. 2. Such a council is collectively responsible to the Parliament. Select the correct code:

A. 1 is true but 2 is false,
B. 2 is true but 1 is false.
C. 1 and 2 both are true.
D. 1 and 2 both are false.
Answer» C. 1 and 2 both are true.
27.

Which of the following states later came to be known as Karnataka?

A. Mysore
B. Bangalore
C. Mangalore
D. Hyderabad
Answer» B. Bangalore
28.

7. Chairman of Legislative Council is:

A. appointed by the Governor
B. the Governor
C. elected by the members of the Legislative Council from among themselves
D. appointed by the Speaker of the Assembly
Answer» D. appointed by the Speaker of the Assembly
29.

The Instrument of Accession signed by Maharaja Hari Singh and Pandit Nehru was accepted by the Governor-General Lord Mountbatten on

A. October 25, 1947
B. 17466
C. October 27, 1947
D. 17468
Answer» D. 17468
30.

Name the latest state created in India.

A. Chhattisgarh
B. Uttarakhand
C. Telangana
D. Jharkhand
Answer» D. Jharkhand
31.

The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the state list in the national interest if resolution to that affect is passed by the                    [IAS Prelims 2016]

A. Lok Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership
B. Lok Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its total membership
C. Rajya Sabha by a simple majority of its total members.
D. Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its members present & voting
Answer» E.
32.

The Parliament can make laws on the subjects enumerated in the State List under certain circumstances which include: 1. When a State List item acquires national importance 2. When two or more states request the Union to make law for them on a specific State List item 3. When the President and the Supreme Court jointly make such a request Select the code containing the correct statements.

A. 1, 2
B. 1, 3
C. 2, 3
D. 1, 2, 3
Answer» B. 1, 3
33.

The speaker can ask a member of the House to stop speaking and let another member speak. This phenomenon is known as?

A. Decorum
B. Crossing the floor
C. Interpolation
D. Yielding the floor
Answer» E.
34.

The High Court of Jammu and Kashmir consists of

A. One chief justice and one judge
B. One chief justice and two or more other judges
C. Only one judge
D. None of the above
Answer» C. Only one judge
35.

Where are the provisions of the tribal areas stated? Give the Schedule as given in the Constitution.

A. Sixth Schedule
B. Fifth Schedule
C. Seventh Schedule
D. Tenth Schedule
Answer» B. Fifth Schedule
36.

Which one of the following states shares its border with Bangladesh?

A. Arunachal Pradesh
B. Meghalaya
C. Nagaland
D. Manipur
Answer» C. Nagaland
37.

Who according to the Constitution of India has the power to declare any area a Scheduled Area?

A. President
B. The Vice-President
C. The Council of Ministers
D. The Governor of the concerned state
Answer» B. The Vice-President
38.

One of the following is not a fundamental duty of the citizens of India:

A. To obey the rules of the road
B. To uphold the integrity of India
C. To safeguard public property
D. To develop a scientific temper
Answer» B. To uphold the integrity of India
39.

Which one of the following is not true with regard to the duration of the Panchayats?

A. The tenure of the Panchayats is three years.
B. The duration of the Panchayat is five years.
C. Fresh election should be completed before the expiry of the duration of 5 years.
D. In case of dissolution, before the expiry of a period of six months from the date of dissolution
Answer» D. In case of dissolution, before the expiry of a period of six months from the date of dissolution
40.

41. Article 154 states that the Governor can exercise his executive authority either directly of through officers subordiante to him. The word subordinates includes :

A. All the ministers and the Chief Minister
B. All the ministers except the Chief Minister
C. Only the Chief Minister and the Deputy Chief Minister
D. Only the Cabinet Minister
Answer» B. All the ministers except the Chief Minister
41.

Match List I wish List II List I List II Amendment State A Thirteenth 1 Sikkim B Fourteenth 2 Dadra and Nagar Haveli C Thirty-Sixth             3  Nagaland D Tenth 4 Tripura

A. A-3                   B-4                   C-1                   D-2
B. A-3                   B-1                   C-2                   D-4
C. A-3                   B-4                   C-2                   D-1
D. A-1                   B-3                   C-4                   D-2
Answer» B. A-3                   B-1                   C-2                   D-4
42.

Consider the following statements: 1. All decisions of the State Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the State must be communicated to the Governor. 2. The Governor can call for information relating to proposals for legislation. 3. The Governor can direct that any matter on which decision has been taken by a Minister should be placed before the State Council of Ministers. 4. The Governor has the right to address and send messages to the State Council of Ministers to elicit specific information. Which of these is/are correct?

A. Only 1
B. 3 and 4
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer» D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
43.

Which is the voluntary provision of the 73rd Amendment Act?

A. Reservation of one-third of the seats for women
B. Establishment of three-tier system
C. Setting up of a state Election Commission
D. Giving representation to the members of the Parliament
Answer» E.
44.

Which of the following statement/s is/are true with regard to the Attorney General of India: 1. He/she can be a member of a Parliamentary committee. 2. He/she is debarred from private legal practice.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both
D. None
Answer» B. 2 only
45.

Who has the power to declare war under the Constitution?

A. The Defence Minister
B. The Prime Minister
C. The President of India
D. The Parliament
Answer» D. The Parliament
46.

Who was the President of India at the time of proclamation of emergency in the year 1976?

A. V.V Giri
B. Giani Zail Singh
C. Fakhr-ud-din Ali Ahmad
D. Shankar Dayal Sharma
Answer» D. Shankar Dayal Sharma
47.

The Constitution of India divided the states of India in categories A, B, C and D in the year 1950. In this context which of the following statements is correct?

A. The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of category A states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of category B states. The Governor was the executive head of categories C and D states.
B. The Rajpramukh was die executive head of category A states. The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of categories B and C states. The Governor was the executive head of the category D states.
C. The Governor was the executive head of category A states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of category B states. The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of categories C and D states.
D. The Governor was the executive head of category A states. The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of category B states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of categories C and D states.
Answer» D. The Governor was the executive head of category A states. The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of category B states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of categories C and D states.
48.

Consider the following statements: 1. The President of India is empowered by the Constitution of India to make regulations specifying the matters on which it is not necessary to consult the Union Public Service Commission. 2. The reasons for non-acceptance of the advice of the Union Public Service Commission have to be laid before each House of the Parliament. Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer» D. Neither 1 nor 2
49.

Which, among the following states of the Union of India, was brought under the associate state vide the 35th Amendment Act?

A. Himachal Pradesh
B. Mizoram
C. Sikkim
D. Arunachal Pradesh
Answer» D. Arunachal Pradesh
50.

Emergency provisions have been incorporated in the following articles:

A. 131,132 and 133
B. 153,154 and 155
C. 370, 370A and 370B
D. 353, 356 and 360
Answer» E.