Explore topic-wise MCQs in UPSC IAS Exam.

This section includes 2618 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your UPSC IAS Exam knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

2101.

Which Article of the Constitution of India directs the State to make effective provision for securing the Right to work?

A.  Article 16    
B.  Article 38
C.  Article 41    
D.  Article 43
Answer» D.  Article 43
2102.

Which of the following amendment of the Constitution increased the elective strength of Lok Sabha from 525 to 545?

A. 31st amendment       
B. 30th amendment
C. 25th amendment       
D. 21st amendment
Answer» B. 30th amendment
2103.

Which one of the following can be amended by a simple majority of each of the Houses of the Parliament?

A. Representation of states in Council of States
B. Lists as incorporated in the Seventh Schedule
C. Article 11 relating to citizenship
D. Article 368 of the Constitution
Answer» D. Article 368 of the Constitution
2104.

Niti Aayog is the result of:

A. President's Order     
B. Law of the Parliament
C. Cabinet Resolutions  
D. Constitutional Provision
Answer» D. Constitutional Provision
2105.

The Constitution bestows __ citizenship on Indian citizens.

A. Single   
B. dual
C. Federal    
D. Three
Answer» B. dual
2106.

Which one of the following is a constitutional body?

A. National Commission for Minorities
B. National Commission for Backward Classes
C. National Commission for Women
D. National Commission for Scheduled Castes
Answer» E.
2107.

According to Article 74 of the Constitution, which of the following statements relating to the advice tendered by Ministers to the President would be correct?

A.  It shall not be inquired into in any court.
B.  It can be inquired into in the Supreme Court.
C.  It can be inquired into in all the courts.
D.  It cannot be inquired into in the High Courts.
Answer» B.  It can be inquired into in the Supreme Court.
2108.

By which amendment of the constitution, the Word 'Socialist' was incorporated in the preamble of the constitution?

A. \[{{42}^{nd}}\]Amendment     
B. \[{{44}^{th}}\]Amendment
C. \[{{25}^{th}}\]Amendment      
D. \[~{{24}^{th}}\]Amendment
Answer» B. \[{{44}^{th}}\]Amendment
2109.

Which one of the following is the correct statement? The power of Parliament to amend the Constitution of India as a constitutional power was laid down under Article 368 by:

A.  The Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951
B.  The Constitution (Twenty-fourth Amendment) Act, 1971
C.  The Constitution (Twenty-sixth Amendment) Act, 1971
D.  The Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) Act, 1976
Answer» C.  The Constitution (Twenty-sixth Amendment) Act, 1971
2110.

Who sets up the Commission for the protection of minorities?

A. National Commission for Minorities
B. Minority Commission
C. Committee on Minorities
D. None of the above
Answer» B. Minority Commission
2111.

The Lokayuktas deal with complaints

A. Against Secretaries
B. Against higher officials other than the Secretaries
C. Against Union Ministers
D. Against State Ministers
Answer» C. Against Union Ministers
2112.

Match List I with List II. List I List II A 24th  Amendment    States reorganized       B 39th  Amendment Election of the President etc beyond the purview of the Court C 42nd Amendment  Addition of the words 'socialist' 'secular' D 7th Amendment     Power of the Parliament to amend the Constitution

A. A-1       B-2       C-3       D-4
B. A-4    B-2       C-3       D-1
C. A-4      B-3       C-2       D-1
D. A-4    B-1       C-2       D-3
Answer» C. A-4      B-3       C-2       D-1
2113.

Which of the following is/are provided by Article 249 of the Constitution of India? 1. Residuary powers of legislation 2. Power of the Parliament to legislate with respect to a matter in the state list in the national interest 3. Legislation for giving effect to international agreements Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A.  Only 1    
B.  1 and 2
C.  2 and 3  
D.  2 only
Answer» E.
2114.

'Reasonableness' and 'Social Justice' too constitute parts of basic structure. This is what has been made clear in one of the following Supreme Court verdicts. Which one is it?

A. Shankari Prasad v Union of India
B. Golak Nath v State of Punjab
C. Kesavananda Bharati v State of Kerala
D. M. Nagraj v Union of India
Answer» E.
2115.

When there is no majority party in the State Legislative Assembly, the principal consideration governing the choice of the Chief Minister by the Governor of the State is the:

A.  Ability of the person who is most likely to command a stable majority in the House
B.  Largest political party in the Legislative Assembly
C.  The combination of several parties as a unit
D.  The loyalty and support of the party members to their respective party programmes and policies
Answer» B.  Largest political party in the Legislative Assembly
2116.

Consider the following statements:    1. Sarkaria Commission recommended that the Union Government may persuade the State I Governments for constitution of an All-India Service for education.     2. All-India Services are included in the Concurrent List of the Constitution of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?     

A.  Only 1 
B.  Only 2
C.  Both 1 and 2    
D.  Neither 1 nor 2
Answer» B.  Only 2
2117.

Which one of the following statements is not correct regarding the functions and powers of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India?

A. He examines the accounts of the Union Government and submits his report to the President.
B. He examines the accounts of the State Governments and submits his report to the Governors of the respective States.
C. He does not exercise any administrative control over the offices of the auditors working in the States.
D. In case either House of Parliament desires to have any information from him, it can do so through the Public Accounts Committee.
Answer» D. In case either House of Parliament desires to have any information from him, it can do so through the Public Accounts Committee.
2118.

Consider the following statements: 1. The Sixth Schedule to the Constitution (Amendment) Act, 1988 included certain modifications in the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution in its application to the State of Assam. 2. The Sixth Schedule to the Constitution (Amendment) Act, 1995 included certain modifications in the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution in its application to the states of Tripura and Mizoram. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.  Only 1    
B.  Only 2
C.  Both 1 and 2    
D.  Neither 1 nor 2
Answer» E.
2119.

Which of the following is not a principal source of non-tax revenue of the Union?

A.  Posts and Telegraphs 
B.  Broadcasting
C.  Forests       
D.  Opium
Answer» D.  Opium
2120.

Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India deals with the promotion of inter- national peace and security?

A.  Article 51   
B.  Article 39
C.  Article 44   
D.  Article 265
Answer» B.  Article 39
2121.

In which of the following years, the Citizenship Act, 1955 has been amended? 1. 1986       2. 1992 3. 2003        4. 2005 Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A.  2, 3 and 4     
B.  1, 2 and 4
C.  1, 2, 3 and 4       
D.  1, 2 and 3
Answer» D.  1, 2 and 3
2122.

Which schedule of Indian Constitution is related to Panchayti Raj?

A. II Schedule  
B. VIII Schedule
C. X Schedule 
D. XI Schedule
Answer» E.
2123.

Which of the following amendment was passed during the period of emergency?

A. 45th amendment       
B. 50th amendment
C. 42nd amendment      
D. 47th amendment
Answer» D. 47th amendment
2124.

One of the following amendments imposed restrictions on the fundamental rights of the citizens with a view to protect the sovereignty and integrity of India. It was the:

A. Sixteenth Amendment
B. Twentieth Amendment
C. Fifteenth Amendment
D. Forty-second Amendment
Answer» B. Twentieth Amendment
2125.

The concept of basic structure of the Constitution propounded in the Kesavananda Bharati case was further elaborated and strengthened in

A. Indira Nehru Gandhi v Raj Narain Case
B. Minerva Mills Case
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. None of the above
Answer» D. None of the above
2126.

In prescribing the form in which the accounts of the Union and the states are to be kept, the Comptroller and Auditor-General is expected to take approval of the:

A. Parliament
B. Legislature of the state concerned and the Parliament
C. Finance Minister
D. The President of India
Answer» E.
2127.

Which of the following decade sow the highest number of amendments in the constitution?

A. 1951 to 1960    
B. 1961 to 1970
C. 1971 to 1980    
D. 2001 to 2010
Answer» D. 2001 to 2010
2128.

Which one of the following is correct in terms of the Constitution of India?

A.  The Chief Minister decides the allocation of portfolios among the Ministers.
B.  When the Chief Minister resigns, the Council of Ministers gets dissolved.
C.  All the principal policy announcements of the Government are made by the Chief Minister.
D.  It shall be the duty of Chief Minister to communicate to the Governor all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the State.
Answer» E.
2129.

Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India includes the disqualification of a Legislator on grounds of defection?

A. 8th Schedule     
B. 7th Schedule
C.  Schedule    
D. 10th Schedule
Answer» E.
2130.

Which of the following term/s was/were added by the 42nd Amendment act in our Preamble: 1. Socialist   2.   Secular 3. Republic

A. 1 & 2 only        
B. 1 only.
C. 2 & 3 only  
D. 1, 2 & 3
Answer» B. 1 only.
2131.

The Preamble is useful in constitutional interpretation because it

A. uses value loaded words
B. contains the real objective and philosophy of  the constitution makers
C. is a source of power and limitation
D. gives and exhaustive lift of basic features of the Constitution
Answer» C. is a source of power and limitation
2132.

One of the following is the feature of the Lokpal Bill - 2011

A. The institution of the Lokpal consists of a Chairman and members not exceeding eight in number.
B. The Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes representation has to be not less than in the institution of the Lokpal.
C. The jurisdiction of Lokpal covers public functionaries.
D. None of the above
Answer» C. The jurisdiction of Lokpal covers public functionaries.
2133.

Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India deals with the saving of laws giving effect to certain directive principles?

A.  Article 32   
B.  Article 31-A
C.  Article 31-B
D.  Article 31-C
Answer» E.
2134.

Which one of the following amendment reduced the voting age from 21 years to 19 years?

A. 52nd Amendment   
B. 60th Amendment
C. 61st Amendment  
D. None of the above
Answer» D. None of the above
2135.

Which of the following are the ex-officio members of the NHRC? Choose from the codes given. 1. National Commission for Minorities 2. National Commission for Scheduled Castes 3. National Commission for Scheduled Tribes 4. National Commission for Backward Classes 5. National Commission for Women

A. 1, 2, 3, 4 
B. 1, 2, 3, 5
C. 1, 2, 4, 5    
D. 1, 3, 4, 5
Answer» B. 1, 2, 3, 5
2136.

Which one among the following has the power to regulate the right of citizenship in India?

A. The Union Cabinet
B. The Parliament
C. The Supreme Court
D.   The Law Commission
Answer» C. The Supreme Court
2137.

Statement I: The States Reorganisation Act 1956 created 16 states and 8 union territories. Statement II: The States Reorganisation Act 1956 made extensive changes in the boundaries of various states for the purpose of meeting the linguistic regional and local demands. Codes:

A.  Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
B.  Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
C.  Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
D.  Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Answer» E.
2138.

Preamble borrows the ideals of "liberty, equality and fraternity from:

A. Russian Revolution
B. Irish Revolution
C. French Revolution 
D. American Constitution
Answer» D. American Constitution
2139.

"Referendum" has an integral relationship with

A. Indirect democracy
B. Limited monarchy
C. Direct democracy  
D. People's courts
Answer» D. People's courts
2140.

Consider the following statements:     1. Originally, the Citizenship Act (1955), also provided for the Commonwealth Citizenship. 2. The provision for Commonwealth Citizenship was repealed by the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2005. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.  Only 1    
B.  Only 2
C.  Both 1 and 2    
D.  Neither 1 nor 2
Answer» B.  Only 2
2141.

Consider the following statements in relation to the amending procedure in India and choose the correct code: 1. No amending proposal can be introduced in the Parliament without the prior permission of the President of India. 2. The President must give assent to the already passed amending bill before it becomes an Act.

A. 1 is true but 2 is false,  
B. 2 is true but 1 is false.
C. 1 and 2 both are true.  
D. 1 and 2 both are false.
Answer» E.
2142.

Which one of the following statements is not correct with regard to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)?

A. The CAG has been awarded a fully independent status.
B. The CAG can only be removed on the recommendation of the President.
C. The salary and emoluments of the CAG are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
D. The tenure of CAG is fixed for six years.
Answer» C. The salary and emoluments of the CAG are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
2143.

Constitutional safeguards to civil servants are ensured by:

A. Article 310      
B. Article 315
C. Article 312       
D. Article 311
Answer» E.
2144.

Which statement is correct? 1. Territory of the constituents of the Indian federation may be altered by the Parliament by a simple majority. 2. Consent of the State Legislature is necessary before the Parliament alters boundaries. 3. President's recommendation is necessary for introducing any Bill on redrawing the boundary of a State. 4. President must have State's opinion before altering the name of the State. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only     
B. 1 and 2
C. 1, 3 and 4   
D. 1 and 3
Answer» E.
2145.

Match the following List-I (Act) List-II (Feature) a. The Indian Councils Act, 1892 Introduction of provincial autonomy b. The Indian Councils Act, 1909 Indian Introduction of the principle of election c. The Government of India- Act, 1919 Introduction of diarchy in provinces d. The Government of India Act, 1935 Introduction of separate electorate for the Muslims

A.    A-2       B-4       C-3       D-1   
B.    A-1       B-3       C-4       D-2
C.    A-2       B-3       C-4       D-1
D.    A-1       B-4       C-3       D-2
Answer» B.    A-1       B-3       C-4       D-2
2146.

One of the following is true about the National Human Rights Commission?

A. The National Human Rights Commission was constituted through an Act of Parliament-the Protection of Human Rights Act 1993
B. It is extension of Fundamental Rights.
C. It was the extension of UN Human Rights Commission
D. None of the above
Answer» C. It was the extension of UN Human Rights Commission
2147.

The parliament can make any law for the whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties?

A. with the consent of all the states
B. with the consent of majority of states
C. with the consent of state concerned
D. without me consent of any state.
Answer» E.
2148.

In which of the following amendments the term of Lok Sabha is increased from 5 to 6 years?

A. 40th amendment       
B. 42nd amendment
C. 44th amendment
D. 46th amendment
Answer» C. 44th amendment
2149.

Which one of the following languages was not included in the 8th Schedule by 71st Amendment?     

A. Sindhi    
B. Konkani
C. Manipuri 
D. Nepali        
Answer» B. Konkani
2150.

Which of the following features are present in the Indian Constitution? 1. Multiple procedures for amendment 2. States are not empowered to initiate amendment 3. Joint-sittings of Parliament to resolve disputes regarding constitutional amendments.         Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

A.  1 and 3  
B.  1 and 2
C.  2 and 3  
D.  1, 2 and 3      
Answer» C.  2 and 3