MCQOPTIONS
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MCQOPTIONS
This section includes 2618 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your UPSC IAS Exam knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.
| 2251. |
Which one of the following are not true with regard to Central Vigilance Commission? Choose from the code given. 1. To undertake an inquiry to be made into any transaction of a public servant 2. To tender independent and impartial advice in disciplinary cases 3. To examine cases of fraud and stealing 4. To review the process and maintenance of integrity in administration |
| A. | 1, 2, 3 |
| B. | 1, 2, 4 |
| C. | 1, 3, 4 |
| D. | 2, 3, 4 |
| Answer» D. 2, 3, 4 | |
| 2252. |
On receipt of a Constitutional Amendment Bill, after passing by each House of Parliament, the President: |
| A. | Shall give his assent |
| B. | May give his assent |
| C. | May withhold his assent |
| D. | May return the Bill for reconsideration |
| Answer» B. May give his assent | |
| 2253. |
The Constitution (74th) Amendment Act makes mention of the |
| A. | composition of the National Development Council |
| B. | structure of the Planning Commission of India |
| C. | functions of the State Finance Commission |
| D. | functions of the Kaveri Water Authority |
| Answer» D. functions of the Kaveri Water Authority | |
| 2254. |
Consider the following statements: 1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only. 2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? |
| A. | 1 only |
| B. | 2 only |
| C. | Both 1 and 2 |
| D. | Neither 1 nor 2 |
| Answer» E. | |
| 2255. |
In pursuance of which of me following Articles of the Constitution of India, the President published an authoritative text of the Constitution in the Hindi language? |
| A. | Article 393 |
| B. | Article 394 |
| C. | Article 394-A |
| D. | Article 395 |
| Answer» D. Article 395 | |
| 2256. |
Statement I: The accounts of every co-operative society shall be audited within one year of tile close of the financial year. Statement II: The audit report of the accounts of an apex co-operative society shall be laid before the state legislature. Codes: |
| A. | Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I. |
| B. | Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I. |
| C. | Statement I is true but Statement II is false. |
| D. | Statement I is false but Statement II is true. |
| Answer» E. | |
| 2257. |
What is the tenure of the members of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes? |
| A. | 3 years |
| B. | 5 years |
| C. | 7 years |
| D. | 9 years |
| Answer» B. 5 years | |
| 2258. |
Who among the following holds his office at the pleasure of the President? |
| A. | Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission |
| B. | Attorney General of India |
| C. | Speaker of the Lok Sabha |
| D. | Comptroller and Auditor General of India |
| Answer» C. Speaker of the Lok Sabha | |
| 2259. |
The Central Information Commission consists of a Chief Information Commissioner and not more than: |
| A. | Five Information Commissioners |
| B. | Ten Information Commissioners |
| C. | Six Information Commissioners |
| D. | Eight Information Commissioners |
| Answer» C. Six Information Commissioners | |
| 2260. |
Consider the following statements: 1. Parliament shall, while a proclamation of Emergency is in operation, have the power to make laws for the whole or any part of territory of India with respect to any of the matters enumerated in the State list. 2. Parliament has exclusive power to make any law with respect to any matter not enumerated in the Concurrent list or State list. 3. Parliament has power to make any law for the whole or any part of the territory of India for implementing any treaty, agreement or convention with any other country. 4. Parliament has power to legislate with respect to a matter in the State list in the national interest subject to the resolution passed by the Council of States by two-thirds majority. Which of these statements are correct? |
| A. | 1, 2 and 3 |
| B. | 1, 2, 3 and 4 |
| C. | 1, 3 and 4 |
| D. | 2 and 4 |
| Answer» C. 1, 3 and 4 | |
| 2261. |
Through which of the following statements has free and compulsory education been made a fundamental right? |
| A. | 84th |
| B. | 85th |
| C. | 86th |
| D. | 87th |
| Answer» D. 87th | |
| 2262. |
One of the following is true with regard to the process of amendment as indicated in Article 368. Which one is it? |
| A. | The prior permission of the President is necessary for initiating the amending proposal in the Parliament. |
| B. | The amending proposal cannot be initiated first in the Council of States. |
| C. | Without the assent of the President, no amendment can be passed. |
| D. | The President can withhold the assent on the amending proposal once it is passed by both the Houses of the Parliament. |
| Answer» D. The President can withhold the assent on the amending proposal once it is passed by both the Houses of the Parliament. | |
| 2263. |
The Ninth Schedule to the Indian Constitution was added by: |
| A. | First Amendment |
| B. | Eighth Amendment |
| C. | Ninth Amendment |
| D. | Forty Second Amendment |
| Answer» B. Eighth Amendment | |
| 2264. |
The 52nd Amendment Act deals with |
| A. | Anti-Corruption law |
| B. | Anti-Defection law |
| C. | Neither nor |
| D. | Both (a) and (b) |
| Answer» C. Neither nor | |
| 2265. |
Which of the following gave the idea of constituent Assembly for India? |
| A. | Simon Commission |
| B. | Rajaji Formula |
| C. | Cabinet Mission Plan |
| D. | Wavell Plan |
| Answer» D. Wavell Plan | |
| 2266. |
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:List-I (Amendment)List-II (Nature of Amendment)A.42nd Amendment Act, 19761.Disqualification for defectionB.52nd Amendment Act, 19852.It amended schedule VIII to the constiturion and added Sindhi as recognized language.C.62nd Amendment Act, 19893.This Amendment inserted three new words ?secular? and ?integrity? in the preambleD.21st Amendment Act, 19664.This amendment has extended the reservation of state for SCs and STs in the House of the people and state legislative Assemblies.Codes: |
| A. | A-3 B-1 C-2 D-4 |
| B. | A-1 B-3 C-4 D-2 |
| C. | A-3 B-1 C-4 D-2 |
| D. | A-1 B-3 C-2 D-4 |
| Answer» D. A-1 B-3 C-2 D-4 | |
| 2267. |
Article 358 & 359 describe the effect of a National emergency on the fundamental right which of the following statements are correct with regard to article 358 & 359.1. Article 358 operates only in the case of External emergency & not in the case of internal emergency.2. Article 359 operates in case of both External &Internal emergency.3. Article 358 suspends PR under Article 19 for the entire duration of emergency.4. Article 358 extends to the entire coutry whereasArticle 359 may extend to entire country or part of it. |
| A. | 1 & 2 only |
| B. | 1, 2 & 3 only |
| C. | 2, 3 & 4 only |
| D. | 1, 2, 3 & 4 |
| Answer» E. | |
| 2268. |
Which of the Articles of the Constitution of India are relevant to analyse the constitutional provisions that deal with the relationship of the President with the Council of Ministers? |
| A. | Articles 71, 75 and 78 |
| B. | Articles 74, 75 and 78 |
| C. | Articles 73, 76 and 78 |
| D. | Articles 72, 73 and 76 |
| Answer» C. Articles 73, 76 and 78 | |
| 2269. |
The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains provisions for the administration of Tribal areas. Which of the following States is not covered under this Schedule? |
| A. | Assam |
| B. | Manipur |
| C. | Meghalaya |
| D. | Tripura |
| Answer» C. Meghalaya | |
| 2270. |
The Parliament enacted a law conferring statutory status on the Central Vigilance Commission in: |
| A. | 2000 |
| B. | 2002 |
| C. | 2003 |
| D. | 2005 |
| Answer» D. 2005 | |
| 2271. |
Who heads the National Knowledge Commission? |
| A. | The President |
| B. | The Chief Justice of India |
| C. | The Prime Minister |
| D. | The Minister of Higher Education |
| Answer» D. The Minister of Higher Education | |
| 2272. |
Amendment of the Constitution implies: 1. Addition in the Constitution 2. Deletion in the Constitution 3. Correction in the Constitution 4. Alteration in the Constitution |
| A. | 1 and 3 only |
| B. | 2 and 3 only |
| C. | 3 and 4 only |
| D. | 1, 2, 3, 4 |
| Answer» E. | |
| 2273. |
An amendment of the Constitution of India for the purpose of creating a new state must be passed by: |
| A. | Simple majority in Parliament |
| B. | A simple majority in Parliament and ratification by not less than half of the states |
| C. | Two-thirds majority in Parliament and ratification by not less than two-third of the states |
| D. | Two-third of the members of both houses of Parliament present and voting |
| Answer» B. A simple majority in Parliament and ratification by not less than half of the states | |
| 2274. |
The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India?(1) Right to healthy environment, construed as a part of Right to life under Article 21.(2) Provision of Grants for raising the level of administration in the scheduled Areas for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes under Article 275 (1)(3) Powers & functions of gram sabha as mentioned under Article 243 [A]Select the correct answer using the codes given below: |
| A. | 1 only |
| B. | 2 & 3 only |
| C. | 1 & 3 only |
| D. | 1, 2 & 3 |
| Answer» B. 2 & 3 only | |
| 2275. |
The Supreme Court has not foreclosed its list of basic structure. Given here are some items. Select the correct code: 1. Secularism 2. Balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles 3. Separation of Executive from Legislature 4. Quintessence of equal justice 5. Every feature of equality |
| A. | 1, 2, 4, 5 |
| B. | 1, 2, 4 |
| C. | 2, 3, 4, 5 |
| D. | 3, 4, 5 |
| Answer» C. 2, 3, 4, 5 | |
| 2276. |
Consider the following statements with regard to the Chief Minister of a State: 1. He is appointed by the Governor of the State. 2. He and his Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the Governor. 3. He must communicate to the Governor all the decisions of Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the State and proposals for legislation. 4. If the Governor of the State so requires, the Chief Minister shall submit for the consideration of the Council of Ministers any matter on which a decision has been taken by a minister but which has not been considered by the Council of Ministers. Which of these is / are correct? |
| A. | 1, 2, 3 and 4 |
| B. | Only 4 |
| C. | 1, 3 and 4 |
| D. | 1 and 3 |
| Answer» D. 1 and 3 | |
| 2277. |
Which of the following statements regarding the residuary powers in the Constitution of India are correct? 1. Residuary powers have been given to the Union Parliament 2. In the matter of residuary powers, the Constitution of India follows the Constitution of Australia 3. The final authority to decide whether a particular matter falls under the residuary power or not is the Parliament 4. The Government of India Act, 1935 placed residuary powers in the hands of the Governor- General Select the correct answer using the codes given below: |
| A. | 1, 2 and 3 |
| B. | 2 and 3 |
| C. | 1 and 4 |
| D. | 3 and 4 |
| Answer» D. 3 and 4 | |
| 2278. |
Which items is wrongly matched? |
| A. | December 9, 1947 Constituent Assembly's First meeting |
| B. | November 26, 1949 The people of India adopted, enacted and gave to themselves the Constitution |
| C. | January 24, 1950 The Constitution was signed by the members of the Constituent Assembly |
| D. | January 26, 1950 the date of commencement of the Constitution |
| Answer» B. November 26, 1949 The people of India adopted, enacted and gave to themselves the Constitution | |
| 2279. |
Which of the following statements with respect to the Sixth Schedule to the Constitution (Amendment) Act, 2003 are correct? 1. It specified the Bodoland Territorial Areas District in the list of the tribal areas of the State of Assam. 2. It created an autonomous self-governing body known as the Badland Territorial Council (BTC) within the state of Assam. 3. It provided for adequate safeguards for the non-tribal in the BTC area. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: |
| A. | 1 and 2 |
| B. | 2 and 3 |
| C. | 1 and 3 |
| D. | 1, 2 and 3 |
| Answer» E. | |
| 2280. |
States Reorganisation Act created_____ states and_____ Union Territories. |
| A. | 14; 7 |
| B. | 14; 6 |
| C. | 15; 7 |
| D. | 15; 6 |
| Answer» C. 15; 7 | |
| 2281. |
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below: List- I List- II (provisions pertaining to citizenship) (contained in Articles) A. Right of citizenship of certain persons who have migrated to India from Pakistan 1. Article 5 B. Persons voluntarily acquiring citizenship of a foreign state not to be citizens 2. Article 7 C. Citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution 3. Article 6 d. Rights of citizenship of certain migrants to Pakistan 4. Article 8 5. Article 9 Codes: |
| A. | A-3 B-4 C-2 D-5 |
| B. | A-2 B-5 C-3 D-1 |
| C. | A-2 B-4 C-1 D-3 |
| D. | A-3 B-5 C-1 D-2 |
| Answer» E. | |
| 2282. |
Consider the following statements about the recent amendments to the elections law by the Representation of the People (Amendment) Act 1996:1. Any conviction for the offence of insulting theIndian National flag or the Constitution of Indian shall entail disqualification for contesting elections to Parliament and State Legislatures for six year from the date of conviction2. There is an increase in the security deposit which a candidate has to make to contest the election to the Lok Sabha3. A candidate cannot now stand for election from more than one Parliament Constituency4. No election will now be countermanded on the death of a contesting candidateWhich of the above statements are correct? |
| A. | 2 and 3 |
| B. | 1, 2 and 4 |
| C. | 1 and 3 |
| D. | 1, 2, 3 and 4 |
| Answer» B. 1, 2 and 4 | |
| 2283. |
Consider the following statements: 1. Article 371 A to 371 I were inserted in the Constitution of India to meet regional demands of Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunchal Pradesh and Goa. 2. Constitution of India and the United States of America envisage a dual policy (The Union and the States) but a single citizenship. 3. A naturalized citizen of India can never he-deprived of his citizenship. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? |
| A. | 1, 2 and 3 |
| B. | 1 and 3 |
| C. | 3 only |
| D. | 1 only |
| Answer» E. | |
| 2284. |
The Central Vigilance Commission was established on the recommendation of |
| A. | Administrative Reforms Commission |
| B. | National Development Council |
| C. | Committee on Prevention of Corruption |
| D. | Law Commission |
| Answer» D. Law Commission | |
| 2285. |
Consider the following pairs: 1. Taxes levied by the union but collected and appropriated by the states : Stamp duties 2. Taxes levied and collected by the centre but assigned to the states : Taxes on the sale of goods in the course of inter- states trade Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? |
| A. | Only 1 |
| B. | Only 2 |
| C. | Both 1 and 2 |
| D. | Neither 1 nor 2 |
| Answer» D. Neither 1 nor 2 | |
| 2286. |
Under the following circumstances, a member of the UPSC can be removed. Choose the code giving the correct options. 1. On grounds of proved misbehaviour and in capability 2. On grounds of infirmity of mind or body 3. On grounds of any paid employment 4. On grounds of insolvency |
| A. | 1, 2, 3 |
| B. | 2, 3, 4 |
| C. | 1, 2, 4 |
| D. | 1, 3, 4 |
| Answer» D. 1, 3, 4 | |
| 2287. |
The source of the basic structure theory of the constitution of India is |
| A. | the constitution |
| B. | opinion of jurists |
| C. | indicial interpretation |
| D. | parliamentary statutes |
| Answer» D. parliamentary statutes | |
| 2288. |
One whose directions was the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) given statutory status? |
| A. | The President |
| B. | The Central Government |
| C. | The Supreme Court |
| D. | The Parliament of India |
| Answer» D. The Parliament of India | |
| 2289. |
Which of the following is true about the members of the UPSC? |
| A. | They would not hold office beyond 60 years of age. |
| B. | They can retire on their own and give their resignation to the President. |
| C. | They can be removed on order of the President on the basis of a resolution passed by the Parliament. |
| D. | None of the above |
| Answer» C. They can be removed on order of the President on the basis of a resolution passed by the Parliament. | |
| 2290. |
When was the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST) constituted separately? |
| A. | Through the 80th Amendment, by Article 338 in 2003 |
| B. | Through the 89th Amendment, by Article 338A in 2003 |
| C. | Through the 90th Amendment, by Article 339 in 2003 |
| D. | Through the 90th Amendment, by Article 339A in 2003 |
| Answer» C. Through the 90th Amendment, by Article 339 in 2003 | |
| 2291. |
Choose the article which can be amended through Article 368. |
| A. | Article 241 |
| B. | Article 124(1) |
| C. | Article 133(3) |
| D. | Article 343(3) |
| Answer» B. Article 124(1) | |
| 2292. |
Under which one of the following constitution amendment act, four languages were added to the languages under the eighth schedule of the constitution of India thereby, raising their number to 22? |
| A. | 90th Amendment Act |
| B. | 91st Amendment Act |
| C. | 92nd Amendment Act |
| D. | 93rd Amendment Act |
| Answer» D. 93rd Amendment Act | |
| 2293. |
As compared to the Indian Constitution, the US Constitution is |
| A. | A rigid Constitution |
| B. | A flexible Constitution |
| C. | Neither rigid Constitution nor flexible |
| D. | Both rigid and flexible Constitution |
| Answer» B. A flexible Constitution | |
| 2294. |
Which of the following taxes are levied and collected and retained by the States? 1. Taxes on mineral rights 2. Taxes on entry of goods into a local area 3. Taxes on agricultural income 4. Taxes on professions, trades, callings and employments Select the correct answer using the codes given below: |
| A. | 1, 3 and 4 |
| B. | 1, 2 and 3 |
| C. | 2 and 3 |
| D. | 1, 2, 3 and 4 |
| Answer» E. | |
| 2295. |
Which of the following confer additional functions to the UPSC? |
| A. | Lok Sabha through a resolution passed by two-third majority of the members present and voting |
| B. | Rajya Sabha through a resolution passed by a two-third majority of the members present and voting |
| C. | Parliament can confer additional functions through legislations. |
| D. | President can increase the functions of the UPSC. |
| Answer» B. Rajya Sabha through a resolution passed by a two-third majority of the members present and voting | |
| 2296. |
Right to Property has been granted by one of the following Articles of the Constitution. Which one is it? |
| A. | 299A |
| B. | 300A |
| C. | 301A |
| D. | 302 A |
| Answer» C. 301A | |
| 2297. |
The concept of basic structure of the constitution gained currency following the Supreme Court's judgment in |
| A. | Golak Nath case |
| B. | Kesavananda Bharati case |
| C. | Minerva Mills case |
| D. | None of the above cases |
| Answer» C. Minerva Mills case | |
| 2298. |
Match the following List-I (Schedule in the Constitution of India) List-II (Subject) a. Tenth Schedule 1. Languages b. Eighth Schedule 2. Provisions as to disqualification on the grounds of defection c. First Schedule 3. Validation of certain Acts and Regulations d. Ninth Schedule 4. The States |
| A. | A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1 |
| B. | A-2 B-1 C-4 D-3 |
| C. | A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3 |
| D. | A-2 B-3 C-4 D-1 |
| Answer» C. A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3 | |
| 2299. |
The provisions of the Act relating to the duties of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India are to audit and report on all the expenditure from which of the following?1. Consolidated Fund of India2. Consolidated Fund of each State3. Contingency Fund of India4. Public Account of IndiaSelect the correct answer using the codes given below: |
| A. | 1, 2, 3 and 4 |
| B. | 1, 2 and 3 only |
| C. | 2, 3 and 4 only |
| D. | 1, 3 and 4 only |
| Answer» B. 1, 2 and 3 only | |
| 2300. |
Which one of the following is not the area covered by the National Knowledge Commission? |
| A. | Build excellence in the educational system |
| B. | Promotion of research in Science and Technology |
| C. | Strengthening the traditional values |
| D. | Helping the government to make governance effective and transparent |
| Answer» D. Helping the government to make governance effective and transparent | |