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MCQOPTIONS
This section includes 2618 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your UPSC IAS Exam knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.
| 2151. |
The features of Indian parliamentary system are: 1. Independent judiciary. 2. Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature. 3. A written Constitution. 4. Presence of de jure and de facto executives. 5. Individual responsibility of the executive to the legislature. Which of the following statements is/are correct? |
| A. | 2, 3 and 4 |
| B. | 1, 2 and 4 |
| C. | 2, 4 and 5 |
| D. | 1, 2, 4 and 5 |
| Answer» D. 1, 2, 4 and 5 | |
| 2152. |
The annual report of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India is scrutinised in detail by the: |
| A. | Public Accounts Committee |
| B. | Estimates Committee |
| C. | Consultative Committee of the Finance Ministry |
| D. | Select Committee on Expenditure |
| Answer» B. Estimates Committee | |
| 2153. |
Which of the following are considered as parts of the basic structure of the Indian Constitution? 1. Republication and democratic form of Government 2. Secular character of the Constitution 3. Division between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy Federal character of the Constitution Select the correct answer using the codes given below: |
| A. | 1, 2 and 3 |
| B. | 2, 3 and 4 |
| C. | 1, 3 and 4 |
| D. | 1, 2 and 4 |
| Answer» E. | |
| 2154. |
Consider the following statements: The Article 73 of the Constitution of India which deals with the extent of executive power of the Union, provides that: 1. The executive power of the Union extends to all matters with respect to which the Parliament has the power to make laws. 2. The Government of India may also exercise such authority available under any treaty. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? |
| A. | Only 1 |
| B. | Only 2 |
| C. | Both 1 and 2 |
| D. | Neither 1 nor 2 |
| Answer» D. Neither 1 nor 2 | |
| 2155. |
Consider the following statements:All the Reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India:1. Relating to accounts of the Union and accounts of States are submitted to the President of India2. Relating to accounts of a State are submitted to the Governor of the State3. Relating to accounts of States are submitted to the Union Minister of FinanceWhich of the statements given above is correct? |
| A. | Only 1 |
| B. | Only 2 |
| C. | Only 3 |
| D. | None |
| Answer» C. Only 3 | |
| 2156. |
Consider the following statements: 1. The Central Information Commission is a high-powered independent body. 2. The Central Information Commission is a constitutional body. Which of the statements given above is / are correct? |
| A. | Only 1 |
| B. | Only 2 |
| C. | Both 1 and 2 |
| D. | Neither 1 nor 2 |
| Answer» B. Only 2 | |
| 2157. |
The Constitution (Eighth Amendment) Act, 1960 |
| A. | Article 31(2) of Constitution was amended to provide state power of compulsory acquisition of private property |
| B. | Extenstion of reservations to SC and ST and Anglo Tnriians |
| C. | Substituted entry 33 of Concurrent List of 7th |
| D. | Schedule (d) Act 92A was added to the Union List of Seventh Schedule |
| Answer» C. Substituted entry 33 of Concurrent List of 7th | |
| 2158. |
Which of the following is not of the methods for amending the different categories of provisions in the Constitution? |
| A. | Certain provisions may be amended by a simple majority in Parliament |
| B. | Certain other provisions may be amended only by a two-thirds majority |
| C. | Certain provisions may be amended only by a three- fourths majority |
| D. | Certain amendments require to be ratified by one- half of the States after being passed in Parliament |
| Answer» D. Certain amendments require to be ratified by one- half of the States after being passed in Parliament | |
| 2159. |
The Power to initiate proposal for amendment vested with Parliament is 1. Legislative power 2. Constituent power |
| A. | 1 is true but 2 is false, |
| B. | 2 is true but 1 is false. |
| C. | 1 and 2 both are true. |
| D. | 1 and 2 both are false. |
| Answer» C. 1 and 2 both are true. | |
| 2160. |
Which of the states of Indian federation has a separate constitution? |
| A. | Goa |
| B. | Tamil Nadu |
| C. | Jammu & Kashmir |
| D. | Himachal Pradesh |
| Answer» D. Himachal Pradesh | |
| 2161. |
Which of the following does not constitute an aspect of the concept of basic structures? |
| A. | Parliamentary democracy |
| B. | Supremacy of the Constitution |
| C. | Law-making procedure. |
| D. | Fundamental Rights |
| Answer» D. Fundamental Rights | |
| 2162. |
Statement I: By amendment. Parliament cannot destroy the basic features of the Constitution. Statement II: The power to amend does not include the power to abrogate the Constitution. Codes: |
| A. | Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of I Statement I. |
| B. | Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I. |
| C. | Statement I is true but Statement II is false. |
| D. | Statement I is false but Statement II is true. |
| Answer» B. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I. | |
| 2163. |
Which of the following is not true with regard to the functions of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes? Choose from the codes given. 1. To investigate and monitor all matters relating to the constitutional and legal safeguards for Scheduled Castes 2. To recommend grants for Scheduled Castes 3. To enquire into specific complaints relating to the Scheduled Castes 4. To advise on the planning process of socio-economic development of the Scheduled Castes |
| A. | 1, 2, 3 |
| B. | 1, 3, 4 |
| C. | 1, 2, 4 |
| D. | 2, 3, 4 |
| Answer» C. 1, 2, 4 | |
| 2164. |
Who of the following is the chairperson of the Committee recommending the appointment of the Director of the Central Bureau of Investigation? |
| A. | Cabinet Secretary |
| B. | Personnel Secretary |
| C. | Home Secretary |
| D. | Central Vigilance Commissioner |
| Answer» E. | |
| 2165. |
Which of the following statements is/are not true for the category of the Overseas Citizens of India (OCI) inserted by the amendment to the Citizenship Act of India in 2003? 1. It gives dual citizenship to Persons of Indian Origin (PIO) who are citizens of another country. 2. It gives Persons of Indian Origin (PIO) who are citizens of another country, an OCI card without citizenship. 3. It permits the OCI to vote in general elections in India. 4. It allows the OCI to travel to India without visa. Select the correct answer using the code given below: |
| A. | 1 and 2 |
| B. | 1 and 3 |
| C. | 3 only |
| D. | 2 and 4 |
| Answer» D. 2 and 4 | |
| 2166. |
Which one of the following is not true with regard to the functions of the Election Commission? |
| A. | Conduct of Lok Sabha Elections |
| B. | Conduct of Zila Parishad Elections |
| C. | Addressing complaints relating to general election |
| D. | Recognition of political parties |
| Answer» E. | |
| 2167. |
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? 1. 24th Amendment Asserted the right of me Parliament to amend any part of the Constitution including Part III 2. 39th Amendment Election of President, Vice President, Prime Minister and Speaker is beyond the purview of the Judiciary 3. 42nd Amendment Political defections made illegal and reservations for SC/ST extended for another 10 years. 4. 70th Amendment Granting of statehood to the Union Territory of Delhi. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: |
| A. | 1 and 4 |
| B. | 1 and 2 |
| C. | 2 and 3 |
| D. | 3 and 4 |
| Answer» C. 2 and 3 | |
| 2168. |
Assertion (A): Collective responsibility of the Cabinet signifies unity and coordination among members of the Council of Ministers. Reason (R): It is the prerogative of the Prime Minister to select or drop a member of the Cabinet. Codes: |
| A. | Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A |
| B. | Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A |
| C. | A is true but R is false |
| D. | A is false but R is true |
| Answer» C. A is true but R is false | |
| 2169. |
Which Article of the Constitution of India has the provisions in respect of the amendment of any provision of the Constitution of India and procedure thereof? |
| A. | Article 361 |
| B. | Article 364 |
| C. | Article 366 |
| D. | Article 368 |
| Answer» E. | |
| 2170. |
Which of the following amendments abolished privy purses paid earlier to the former rulers of the princely states? |
| A. | 24th Amendment (1970) |
| B. | 25th Amendment (1972) |
| C. | 26th Amendment (1971) |
| D. | 27th Amendment (1972) |
| Answer» D. 27th Amendment (1972) | |
| 2171. |
The Constitution (Sixth Amendment) Act, 1956 |
| A. | Articles 269 and 286 were amended regarding taxes in the course of interstate trade and commerce |
| B. | 92A was added to the Union List of Seventh Schedule |
| C. | [a] and [b] |
| D. | Inserted two new Articles 31A and 31B and the Ninth Schedule to give protection from challenge to land reform laws |
| Answer» D. Inserted two new Articles 31A and 31B and the Ninth Schedule to give protection from challenge to land reform laws | |
| 2172. |
There is a Vice-Chairperson of the Niti Aayog. Who appoints him or her? |
| A. | The President of India |
| B. | The Planning and Development Minister, if there is any |
| C. | The Prime Minister |
| D. | The Prime Minister in concurrence with the Speaker of the Lok Sabha |
| Answer» D. The Prime Minister in concurrence with the Speaker of the Lok Sabha | |
| 2173. |
The Constitution (43rd Amendment) Act: |
| A. | ensured Press freedom |
| B. | restore the Supreme Court and the High Courts the power to consider the constitutional validity of Central or State laws |
| C. | prescribed serious limitations on the Government's power to proclaim internal emergency |
| D. | removed the right to property from the Constitution |
| Answer» C. prescribed serious limitations on the Government's power to proclaim internal emergency | |
| 2174. |
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below: List-I (Article) List-II (Matter Dealt with) A. Article 39-A 1. Living wage for workers B. Article 43 2. Uniform civil code C. Article 44 3. Separation of judiciary D. Article 50 4. Free legal aid Codes: |
| A. | A-1 B-4 C-2 D-3 |
| B. | A-4 B-1 C-3 D-2 |
| C. | A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3 |
| D. | A-1 B-4 C-3 D-2 |
| Answer» D. A-1 B-4 C-3 D-2 | |
| 2175. |
Which of the following statements regarding the 74th Amendment to the Constitution of India are correct? 1. It provides for the insertion of a new Schedule to the Constitution. 2. It restructures the working of the municipalities. 3. It provides for the reservation of seats for women and Scheduled Castes in the municipalities. 4. It is applicable only to some specified states. |
| A. | 1, 2 and 3 |
| B. | 1, 2 and 4 |
| C. | 1, 3 and 4 |
| D. | 1, 2, 3 and 4 |
| Answer» B. 1, 2 and 4 | |
| 2176. |
Consider the following statements: 1. With the consent of the Government of India, the Governor of a State may entrust on the' Union Government or to its officers functions relating to a State subject, to which executive power of that State extends. 2. The President of India cannot entrust to any State Government or to its officers, functions in relation to any matter to which the executive power of the Union extends. 3. There is a provision in the Constitution of India to create the National Integration Council. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? |
| A. | 1, 2 and 3 |
| B. | 2 and 3 only |
| C. | 1 and 3 only |
| D. | Only 1 |
| Answer» E. | |
| 2177. |
1. The amendment which reduced the voting age from 21 to 18 was the 52nd one. 2. The amendment which provided for disqualifications with respect to membership of legislatures on grounds of defection was the 54th one. Consider the above statements and choose the correct code: |
| A. | Only 1 is true. |
| B. | Only 2 is true. |
| C. | 1 and 2 both are true. |
| D. | 1 and 2 both are false. |
| Answer» E. | |
| 2178. |
The institution of Lokayukta was established first in the following state |
| A. | Odisha |
| B. | Maharashtra |
| C. | Bihar |
| D. | Jharkhand |
| Answer» C. Bihar | |
| 2179. |
Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection? |
| A. | Second Schedule |
| B. | Fifth Schedule |
| C. | Eighth Schedule |
| D. | Tenth Schedule |
| Answer» E. | |
| 2180. |
The National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes is bifurcated into two separate Commissions. Which article deals with the Schedule Tribes? |
| A. | 338 |
| B. | 338A |
| C. | 338B |
| D. | 338C |
| Answer» C. 338B | |
| 2181. |
What is the subject of the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003? |
| A. | Right to Information |
| B. | Limiting the size of Council of Ministers |
| C. | Right to Education |
| D. | Elimination of Corruption at all Levels |
| Answer» C. Right to Education | |
| 2182. |
Consider the following statements and choose the correct code: The acting chairperson of the UPSC is appointed 1. When the office of the chairperson falls vacant 2. When the chairperson is unable to perform his functions due to the absence or some other reason |
| A. | 1 is true but 2 is false, |
| B. | 2 is true but 1 is false. |
| C. | 1 and 2 both are true. |
| D. | 1 and 2 both are false. |
| Answer» D. 1 and 2 both are false. | |
| 2183. |
Consider the following statements: The Parliament becomes competent to make law on a matter enumerated in the state list only if the: 1. Council of States passes a resolution supported by not less than two-thirds majority of the members present and voting that it is in the national interest that the Parliament should make law on such matter. 2. Council of States and House of the People, both passes a resolution that it is in the national interest that the Parliament should make law on such matter. 3. President gives the prior permission for such legislation. 4. Speaker of the House of the People in consultation with Chairman of the Council of State gives the prior permission for such legislation. Which of these statements is/are correct? |
| A. | Only 1 |
| B. | 1, 2 and 3 |
| C. | 2 and 3 |
| D. | 1, 2, 3 and 4 |
| Answer» B. 1, 2 and 3 | |
| 2184. |
Consider the following statements with regard to the dual role of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India. Choose the correct option from the codes given. 1. Ensuring the compliance of the laws passed by the Parliament 2. Ensuring the compliance of the rules and orders issued by the Executive |
| A. | Only1 |
| B. | Only 2 |
| C. | 1 and 2 both are true. |
| D. | 1 and 2 both are false. |
| Answer» D. 1 and 2 both are false. | |
| 2185. |
Who, among the following, can establish additional courts for better administration of any existing law with respect to a matter contained in the Union List? |
| A. | Parliament by law |
| B. | Parliament with the consent of states |
| C. | Union Government by resolution |
| D. | Supreme Court of India |
| Answer» B. Parliament with the consent of states | |
| 2186. |
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below: List-I (constitutional Amendment) List-II ( Eiffects) A. 37th Amendment 1. Tripura in the Sixth Schedule B. 49th Amendment 2. Legislature to a UT C. 58th Amendment 3. Publication of the Constitution in Hindi D. 77th Amendment 4. National Capital status to Delhi 5. Reservation in promotions to SCs and STs Codes: |
| A. | A-2 B-1 C-3 D-5 |
| B. | A-3 B-4 C-2 D-1 |
| C. | A-2 B-4 C-3 D-1 |
| D. | A-3 B-1 C-2 D-5 |
| Answer» B. A-3 B-4 C-2 D-1 | |
| 2187. |
Which one of the following is not a feature of Niti Aayog? |
| A. | Cooperative and non-competitive federalism |
| B. | Vision of national development |
| C. | Decentralized planning |
| D. | Think Tank |
| Answer» B. Vision of national development | |
| 2188. |
The philosophical foundation of the Indian constitution is |
| A. | Directive principle of state policy |
| B. | Fundamental rights |
| C. | Federal Structure |
| D. | Preamble |
| Answer» E. | |
| 2189. |
Who appoints the Comptroller and Auditor General of India? |
| A. | President |
| B. | Prime Minister |
| C. | Finance Minister |
| D. | Speaker of the Lok Sabha |
| Answer» B. Prime Minister | |
| 2190. |
Which one of the following Amendments to the Constitution of India sought to curb the political defection? |
| A. | 42nd Amendment |
| B. | 52nd Amendment |
| C. | 62nd Amendment |
| D. | 70th Amendment |
| Answer» C. 62nd Amendment | |
| 2191. |
All the members of the Central Information Commission are appointed by the President on the recommendations of a committee consisting of |
| A. | Prime Minister |
| B. | Home Minister |
| C. | Leader of the opposition in the Rajya Sabha |
| D. | None of the above |
| Answer» D. None of the above | |
| 2192. |
Which of the following amendments provides for reservation of OBCs in government and private institutions? |
| A. | 90th |
| B. | 91st |
| C. | 92nd |
| D. | 93th |
| Answer» E. | |
| 2193. |
The terms not introduced in the Preamble through the 42nd amendment are: |
| A. | Socialist |
| B. | Secular |
| C. | Integrity |
| D. | None of the above |
| Answer» E. | |
| 2194. |
For which of the following Articles, as indicated in Article 368 is the ratification of at least one-half of the states required'? 1. Articles 54 and 55 2. Article 73 3. Article 162 4. Article 240 Select the correct code: |
| A. | 1, 2, 3 |
| B. | 1, 3, 4 |
| C. | 1, 2, 4 |
| D. | 2, 3, 4 |
| Answer» B. 1, 3, 4 | |
| 2195. |
Consider the following statements: 1. The Cabinet cannot review the decisions taken by the Cabinet Committees. 2. The Cabinet Committees are based on the principles of division of labour and effective delegation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? |
| A. | Only 1 |
| B. | Only 2 |
| C. | Both 1 and 2 |
| D. | Neither 1 nor 2 |
| Answer» C. Both 1 and 2 | |
| 2196. |
Who determines the qualifications of the members of the Finance Commission? |
| A. | The President |
| B. | The Lok Sabha |
| C. | The Rajya Sabha |
| D. | Parliament |
| Answer» E. | |
| 2197. |
Consider the following statements: 1. The Director of Central Bureau of Investigation as Inspector-General of Police, Delhi Special Police Establishment, is responsible for the administration of the organisation. 2. With the enactment of CVC Act, 2003, the superintendence of Delhi Special Police Establishment vests with the Central Government save investigations of offences under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, in which, the superintendence vests with the Central Vigilance Commission. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? |
| A. | Only 1 |
| B. | Only 2 |
| C. | Both 1 and 2 |
| D. | Neither 1 nor 2 |
| Answer» D. Neither 1 nor 2 | |
| 2198. |
On the subject of Income Tax: |
| A. | The Union Government has more powers than State governments |
| B. | The State governments have more powers than the Union government |
| C. | Both Union and State governments have equal powers but Union shall prevail in case of conflict |
| D. | Only the Union government has power |
| Answer» E. | |
| 2199. |
Which Article of the Constitution of India has provided for the office of the Attorney General of India? |
| A. | Article 76 |
| B. | Article 74 |
| C. | Article 78 |
| D. | Article 77 |
| Answer» B. Article 74 | |
| 2200. |
The National Crime Record Bureau predicted crimes against women during the years 1900-2000 as |
| A. | Higher than the population growth |
| B. | Lower than the population growth |
| C. | Equal to population growth |
| D. | None of the above |
| Answer» B. Lower than the population growth | |