MCQOPTIONS
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MCQOPTIONS
This section includes 2618 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your UPSC IAS Exam knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.
| 2051. |
Which one of the following Cabinet Committees is described as a "Super-Cabinet"? |
| A. | Economic Affairs Committee |
| B. | Parliamentary Affairs Committee |
| C. | Political Affairs Committee |
| D. | Appointments Committee |
| Answer» D. Appointments Committee | |
| 2052. |
A simple majority is used for making changes in one of the following provisions of the Constitution. Which one is it? |
| A. | Schedule 7th |
| B. | Powers of the President |
| C. | Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court |
| D. | Number of the Judges in the Supreme Court |
| Answer» E. | |
| 2053. |
Resolutions ratifying the Passed amending bill acquire majority as one of those given below: |
| A. | 2/3rd majority |
| B. | 3/4 majority |
| C. | Simple majority of those of who are present and voting in the House |
| D. | Simple majority of the total strength of the House |
| Answer» D. Simple majority of the total strength of the House | |
| 2054. |
How is the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) constituted? |
| A. | One Chief Vigilance Commissioner and not more than two members |
| B. | One Chief Vigilance Commissioner and not more than three members |
| C. | One Chief Vigilance Commissioner and not more than four members |
| D. | One Chief Vigilance Commissioner and not more than five members |
| Answer» D. One Chief Vigilance Commissioner and not more than five members | |
| 2055. |
Half of the total number of members of UPSC should be |
| A. | Members of the Lok Sabha |
| B. | Members of the Rajya Sabha |
| C. | Members of public offices |
| D. | None of the above |
| Answer» D. None of the above | |
| 2056. |
Niti Aayog replaced the following: |
| A. | National Development Council |
| B. | Planning Commission |
| C. | Inter-state Council |
| D. | Zonal Councils |
| Answer» C. Inter-state Council | |
| 2057. |
Consider the following statements with regard to the 42nd Amendment and choose the code with the correct statements. 1. A High Court cannot pronounce a central law invalid. 2. Supreme Court cannot pronounce a state law invalid. 3. These pronouncements require a majority verdict of the respective courts. |
| A. | 1, 2 |
| B. | 2, 3 |
| C. | 1, 3 |
| D. | 1, 2, 3 |
| Answer» D. 1, 2, 3 | |
| 2058. |
Which of the following is true with regard to the functions of the NHRC? Choose from the codes given. 1. To intervene in any proceedings involving allegations of violation of human rights 2. To review the factors including acts of terrorism 3. To take up cases involving harassment of women at work places 4. To encourage the efforts of NGOs working in the field of human rights |
| A. | 1, 2, 4 |
| B. | 1, 3, 4 |
| C. | 2, 3, 4 |
| D. | 1, 2, 4 |
| Answer» B. 1, 3, 4 | |
| 2059. |
So far as India's procedure of amendment is concerned, it is |
| A. | Purely rigid |
| B. | Purely flexible |
| C. | Neither rigid nor flexible |
| D. | Combination of both rigidity and flexibility |
| Answer» E. | |
| 2060. |
Consider the following statements with regard to the amendments made in the Constitution of India: 1. The Seventh Amendment deals with the reorganization of the Indian States 2. Land reforms Acts have been made part of 6th Schedule. 3. A central University has been provided in Andhra Pradesh through Article 371E. 4. Article 371 B deals with special provisions relating to Nagaland. Select the code giving the correct statements. |
| A. | 1, 2 |
| B. | 1, 3 |
| C. | 2, 3 |
| D. | 2, 3, 4 |
| Answer» C. 2, 3 | |
| 2061. |
Which of the following taxes belong to the Union exclusively? |
| A. | Customs Duties |
| B. | Land Revenue |
| C. | Surcharge on Income Tax |
| D. | Corporation Tax |
| Answer» D. Corporation Tax | |
| 2062. |
Choose the correct statements from below: 1. The Regulating Act "f 1773 was the first step by British govt to regulate the East India Company. 2. The plu's India Act setup the Supreme Court in Calcutta. 3. The Charter Act of 1833 first recognized the company's territories in India as British possessions. 4. Pin's India Act created the Board of Control to look after political affairs. |
| A. | Only 1, 2, 3 is correct |
| B. | Only 1, 3, 4 is correct |
| C. | Only 1, 4 is correct |
| D. | All are correct |
| Answer» D. All are correct | |
| 2063. |
Which one of the following is the main function of the Central Vigilance Commission? |
| A. | To keep a watch on the investigation agencies in the country |
| B. | To expedite the disposal of criminal cases pending in the courts |
| C. | To scrutinise the utilisation of developmental funds sanctioned by the Government |
| D. | To inquire or cause an inquiry of alleged offence of a public servant |
| Answer» E. | |
| 2064. |
Which of the following is correct statement?1. The universal Adult franchise is guaranteed under the Constitution.2. The 61st Amendment brought the age for voting to 18 years. |
| A. | (1) only |
| B. | (2) only |
| C. | 1 and 2 |
| D. | Neither 1 nor 2 |
| Answer» D. Neither 1 nor 2 | |
| 2065. |
Which features and source are WRONGLY matched? |
| A. | Judicial review - British practice |
| B. | Concurrent List - Australian Constitution |
| C. | Directive Principles - Irish Constitution |
| D. | Fundamental Rights- US Constitution |
| Answer» B. Concurrent List - Australian Constitution | |
| 2066. |
The Assam (Alteration of Boundaries) Act, 1951 altered the boundaries of the State of Assam by ceding a strip of territory comprised in that state to which of the following countries? |
| A. | Pakistan |
| B. | Nepal |
| C. | Bhutan |
| D. | Myanmar |
| Answer» D. Myanmar | |
| 2067. |
Under which Article of the Indian Constitution has the State been empowered to protect and improve the environment, forests and wildlife? |
| A. | Article 43-A |
| B. | Article 48-A |
| C. | Article 44 |
| D. | Article 46 |
| Answer» C. Article 44 | |
| 2068. |
Which one of the following is not correct regarding the Comptroller and Auditor-General (CAG) of India? |
| A. | His salary and other service conditions are determined by the Parliament. |
| B. | He shall take an oath before the President. |
| C. | He may also take an oath before any other person appointed for that purpose by the President. |
| D. | He can be removed on the grounds as in case of a Judge of High Court. |
| Answer» E. | |
| 2069. |
The commission's member(s) can be removed by: |
| A. | The President |
| B. | The Vice-President |
| C. | Judges of the Supreme Court |
| D. | The Prime Minister |
| Answer» D. The Prime Minister | |
| 2070. |
Consider the following statements with regard to the 42nd amendment and select the code with the correct statements. 1. Any part of the Constitution can be amended after complying with the procedure laid down in Article 368. 2. Referendum or reference to Constituent Assembly would be required to amend any provision of the Constitution. 3. No provision or part thereof can be amended if it takes away or destroys any of the 'basic structure. Codes: |
| A. | 1, 2 |
| B. | 2, 3 |
| C. | 1, 3 |
| D. | 1, 2, 3 |
| Answer» D. 1, 2, 3 | |
| 2071. |
Consider the following statements: 1. The Constitution of India has 40 parts. 2. There are 390 Articles in the Constitution of India in all. 3. Ninth, Tenth, Eleventh and Twelfth Schedules were added to the Constitution of India by the Constitution (Amendment) Acts. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? |
| A. | 1 and 2 |
| B. | 2 only |
| C. | 3 only |
| D. | 1, 2 and 3 |
| Answer» D. 1, 2 and 3 | |
| 2072. |
Consider the following statements with regard to the doctrine of the basic structure of the Constitution. 1. Amendment procedure is unamendable. 2. Rights and freedoms, unless incorporated in the Constitution, do form part of the basic structures. 3. Any clause which is a part of the Constitution constitutes its basic structure. 4. The courts, especially the Supreme Court, knows what constitutes the basic structure of the Constitution. Select the code giving the correct statements |
| A. | 1, 2, 3 |
| B. | 1, 2, 4 |
| C. | 1, 3, 4 |
| D. | 2, 3, 4 |
| Answer» C. 1, 3, 4 | |
| 2073. |
Constitutional government stand for |
| A. | limited government |
| B. | a government limited by the desires and capacities of those who exercise power. |
| C. | a government run according to general laws known to me people |
| D. | a government run by people's representatives. |
| Answer» B. a government limited by the desires and capacities of those who exercise power. | |
| 2074. |
Consider the following statements: 1. The Fifth Schedule to the Constitution (Amendment) Act, 1976 empowered the President of India to increase the area of any Scheduled Area in a state after consultation with the Governor of that state. 2. The Fifth Schedule to the Constitution (Amendment) Act, 1976 empowered the President of India to rescind any order made for the designation of an area in any state to be a Scheduled Area, or in consultation with the Governor of the state concerned, make fresh order redefining the area which is to be a Scheduled Area. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? |
| A. | Only 1 |
| B. | Only 2 |
| C. | Both 1 and 2 |
| D. | Neither 1 nor 2 |
| Answer» D. Neither 1 nor 2 | |
| 2075. |
In case of inconsistency between laws made by Parliament and the laws made by the State Legislatures, which one of the following shall prevail? |
| A. | The law made by Parliament before the law made by the legislature of the State |
| B. | The law made by Parliament after the law made by the legislature of the State |
| C. | The law made by Parliament before or after the law made by the legislature of the State |
| D. | The law made by the legislature of the State |
| Answer» D. The law made by the legislature of the State | |
| 2076. |
Assertion (A): The Constitution makes a distinction between the legislative power to levy a tax and the power to appropriate the proceeds of tax so levied. Reason (R): The constitution provides for grants-in-aid to the states from the central resources. Codes: |
| A. | Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A |
| B. | Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A |
| C. | A is true but R is false |
| D. | A is false but R is true |
| Answer» C. A is true but R is false | |
| 2077. |
Who among the following had established the Central Information Commission? |
| A. | The Constitution |
| B. | Cabinet |
| C. | Central Government |
| D. | By a law of the Parliament |
| Answer» D. By a law of the Parliament | |
| 2078. |
A change in which of the following does not require ratification by the legislatures of not less than one-half of the states by resolutions to that effect passed by those legislatures before the bill making provisions for an amendment in the Constitution of India is presented to the President for assent? |
| A. | Any of the lists in the Seventh Schedule |
| B. | The provisions of Article 368 |
| C. | Article 73 about extent of executive power of the Union |
| D. | Article 161 about power of Governor to grant pardon |
| Answer» E. | |
| 2079. |
The Central Bureau of Investigation was set-up in: |
| A. | 1962 |
| B. | 1963 |
| C. | 1964 |
| D. | 1965 |
| Answer» C. 1964 | |
| 2080. |
According to the Citizenship Act, 1955, by which of the following ways can a person lose citizen- ship of India? 1. By Renunciation 2. By Termination 3. By Deprivation Select the correct answer using the codes given below: |
| A. | 1 and 2 |
| B. | 2 and 3 |
| C. | 1, 2 and 3 |
| D. | 1 and 3 |
| Answer» D. 1 and 3 | |
| 2081. |
Which among the following features of a federal system is not found in the Indian Political System? |
| A. | Dual citizenship |
| B. | Distribution of powers between the Federal and the State Governments |
| C. | Supremacy of the Constitution |
| D. | Authority of the Courts to interpret the Constitution |
| Answer» B. Distribution of powers between the Federal and the State Governments | |
| 2082. |
The 61st Amendment reduces the franchise age from 21 to 18. This affects one of the following articles. Which one is it? |
| A. | Article 316 |
| B. | Article 326 |
| C. | Article 336 |
| D. | Article 246 |
| Answer» C. Article 336 | |
| 2083. |
The salary, allowances and other service conditions of the Central Vigilance Commissioner are similar to those of: |
| A. | A member of the UPSC |
| B. | A judge of the Supreme Court |
| C. | The Chairman of the UPSC |
| D. | The Chief Election Commissioner |
| Answer» D. The Chief Election Commissioner | |
| 2084. |
Consider following statements 1. Chattisgarh was formed by die Uttar Pradesh Reorganization Act. 2. Himachal Pradesh was first UT to become a State 3. Manipur was the first to become a UT choice |
| A. | Only 1 and 2 correct, |
| B. | Only 2 and 3 correct. |
| C. | Only 1 and 3 correct |
| D. | all correct. |
| Answer» C. Only 1 and 3 correct | |
| 2085. |
Which of the following amendment is related with right to private property? |
| A. | 1st |
| B. | 4th |
| C. | 17th |
| D. | all the above |
| Answer» E. | |
| 2086. |
Consider the following statements: 1. The President shall cause to be published under his authority the translation of the Constitution in Hindi language. 2. The President shall cause to be published under his authority the translation in Hindi of every amendment of the Constitution made in English. Which of the statements given above is / are correct? |
| A. | Only 1 |
| B. | Only 2 |
| C. | Both 1 and 2 |
| D. | Neither 1 nor 2 |
| Answer» D. Neither 1 nor 2 | |
| 2087. |
Which of the following provides for the establishment of the Cabinet Committees? |
| A. | Constitution of India |
| B. | Parliamentary Statutes |
| C. | Rules of Business |
| D. | Presidential Orders |
| Answer» D. Presidential Orders | |
| 2088. |
The 'basic structure' includes which of the following provisions? 1. Rule of Law 2. Federal Polity 3. Parliamentary Democracy 4. Citizenship Provisions |
| A. | 1, 2, 3 |
| B. | 1, 2, 4 |
| C. | 1, 3, 4 |
| D. | 2, 3, 4 |
| Answer» B. 1, 2, 4 | |
| 2089. |
Consider the following statements: 1. In extraordinary circumstances, the normal distribution of power between the Centre and the States is either suspended or the powers of the union parliament are extended over the state subjects. 2. The Indian Constitution vests the residuary power in the Union Parliament and the final decision as to whether a particular matter falls under the residuary power or not is that of the Supreme Court. 3. The Union Government has the power to give directions to the state governments to ensure due compliance with Union laws. 4. If the Legislatures of two or more states so resolve, Parliament can make laws with respect to any matter included in the state list relating to those states. Which of these describe the nature of Indian Federalism? |
| A. | 1, 2, 3 and 4 |
| B. | 1, 2 and 3 |
| C. | 2 and 4 |
| D. | 1 and 3 |
| Answer» B. 1, 2 and 3 | |
| 2090. |
Which term is not used in the preamble of the Indian constitution? |
| A. | Republic |
| B. | Integrity |
| C. | Federal |
| D. | Socialist |
| Answer» E. | |
| 2091. |
Which of the following constitutional provisions facilitate Union control over States? 1. All-India services 2. Grants-in-aid 3. Inter-State Councils Select the correct answer using the codes given below: |
| A. | 1 and 2 only |
| B. | 2 and 3 only |
| C. | 1 and 3 only |
| D. | 1, 2 and 3 |
| Answer» E. | |
| 2092. |
Consider the following statements and choose the correct code: 1. The NCST investigates and monitors all matters relating to the safeguards of the Scheduled Tribes 2. It recommends for the improvement of conditions of the Scheduled Tribes |
| A. | Only 1 is true. |
| B. | Only 2 is true. |
| C. | 1 and 2 both are true. |
| D. | 1 and 2 both are false. |
| Answer» D. 1 and 2 both are false. | |
| 2093. |
Which of the following fall within the duties of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India?1. To audit and report on the receipts and expenditure of all bodies and authorities substantially financed from the Union or State revenues.2. To audit the receipts and expenditure of each State to satisfy himself that the rules and procedures in that behalf are designed to secure an effective check on the assessment, collection and proper allocation of revenue.Select the correct answer using the codes given below: |
| A. | Only 1 |
| B. | Only 2 |
| C. | Both 1 and 2 |
| D. | Neither 1 nor 2 |
| Answer» D. Neither 1 nor 2 | |
| 2094. |
How can the UPSC be described? Choose from the codes provided. 1. It is a statutory body. 2. It is a quasi-judicial body. 3. It is a constitutional body. 4. It is a judicial body. |
| A. | 1, 2, 3 |
| B. | 2, 3 |
| C. | 2, 3, 4 |
| D. | 1, 3, 4 |
| Answer» C. 2, 3, 4 | |
| 2095. |
Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India gives the right to Ministers and Attorney-General to speak in or to take part in the proceedings of either House of Parliament? |
| A. | Article 84 |
| B. | Article 85 |
| C. | Article 87 |
| D. | Article 88 |
| Answer» E. | |
| 2096. |
Consider the following statements : 1. The Charter Act 1853 abolished East India Company's monopoly of Indian trade. 2. Under the Government of India Act 1858, the British Parliament abolished the East India Company altogether and undertook the responsibility of ruling India directly. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? |
| A. | 1 only |
| B. | 2 only |
| C. | Both 1 and 2 |
| D. | Neither 1 nor 2 |
| Answer» C. Both 1 and 2 | |
| 2097. |
Which of the following Articles provides for the Election Commission of India? |
| A. | Article 321 |
| B. | Article 322 |
| C. | Article 323 |
| D. | Article 324 |
| Answer» E. | |
| 2098. |
Select the correct sequence of the following by choosing the correct code. 1. Scheduled Castes Order 2. Untouchability Offences Act 3. Protection of Civil Right Act 4. Communal Order (Chennai) Codes: |
| A. | 3, 4, 1, 2 |
| B. | 4, 1, 2, 3 |
| C. | 1, 2, 3, 4 |
| D. | 2, 3, 4, 1 |
| Answer» D. 2, 3, 4, 1 | |
| 2099. |
Which Schedule of the Constitution of India contains : Special provisions for the administration and control of Scheduled Areas in several States? |
| A. | Third |
| B. | Fifth |
| C. | Seventh |
| D. | Ninth |
| Answer» C. Seventh | |
| 2100. |
Which one of the following may be said to constitute the basic structure of the Constitution? |
| A. | Federal character of Constitution |
| B. | Secular nature of polity |
| C. | Mandate to build a welfare state |
| D. | all of them |
| Answer» E. | |