Explore topic-wise MCQs in Genetic Engineering.

This section includes 163 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Genetic Engineering knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

Mutant strains of Saccharomyces cervevisiae in which endogenous DNA are deleted are called as _________

A. rho0
B. synthetic rho
C. rho+
D. rho-
Answer» B. synthetic rho
2.

Schizosaccharomyces pombe is yeast and it reproduces by __________

A. budding
B. fissing
C. either budding or fissing
D. a method of reproduction other than budding or fissing
Answer» C. either budding or fissing
3.

Protoplast transformation is less time consuming than lithium acetate for transformation.

A. True
B. False
C. May be True or False
D. Can't say
Answer» C. May be True or False
4.

Splicing of the transcripts is necessary for efficient expression.

A. True
B. False
C. May be True or False
D. Can't say
Answer» B. False
5.

In ___________ cells, virus replication doesn’t take place and viral DNA ___________

A. non-permissive, is also not expressed
B. permissive, is also not expressed
C. non-permissive, can be expressed
D. non-permissive, is always expressed
Answer» D. non-permissive, is always expressed
6.

SV40 is a virus and it produces how many transcripts?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer» C. 3
7.

DEAE-dextran is used for introduction of DNA. It is a modified _____ and is ______

A. polysaccharide, negatively
B. polysaccharide, positively
C. monosaccharide, positively
D. monosaccharide, negatively
Answer» C. monosaccharide, positively
8.

Many mammalian cells contain Thymidine Kinase, the mammalian enzyme uses the analogue _____ than does the viral enzyme.

A. more efficiently
B. less efficiently
C. with same efficiency
D. either with same or more efficiency
Answer» C. with same efficiency
9.

Only the _____ part of Drosophila is transgenic and the rest is not. This is known as ______

A. germline cell, mosaic
B. nurse cells, mosaic
C. germline cells, hybrid
D. nurse cells, hybrid
Answer» B. nurse cells, mosaic
10.

Vaccinia virus is a commonly used virus and it is a member of pox virus family. It has a large genome of _____________ and can accept at least ____________ of foreign DNA.

A. 200kb, 25kb
B. 1000kb, 200kb
C. 500kb, 50kb
D. 800kb, 100kb
Answer» B. 1000kb, 200kb
11.

Which of the following compounds control ripening in tomatoes?

A. Auxin
B. Cytokinin
C. Ethylene
D. Jasmonic acid
Answer» D. Jasmonic acid
12.

Tetracycline binding repressor protein when fused to transcription activator protein from herpes simple virus, then it is called as transactivator protein (tTA).

A. True
B. False
C. May be True or False
D. Can't say
Answer» B. False
13.

Resistance to bleomycin (zeocin) is used as a selectable marker for mammalian cultured cells and its function is ____________

A. DNA damaging agent
B. DNA synthesis promoter
C. Inhibiting RNA synthesis
D. Activating RNA synthesis
Answer» B. DNA synthesis promoter
14.

Centromere is the most important component of the human artificial chromosome. It is constructed from tandemly repeated copies of 171 bp of ______ DNA sequence.

A. alpha satellite
B. beta satellite
C. satellite 2
D. satellite 1
Answer» B. beta satellite
15.

DNA can be injected into Caenorhabditis elegans by biolistic transformation. The injected DNA forms arrays of extrochromosomal copies which are stable in nature.

A. True
B. False
C. May be True or False
D. Can't say
Answer» C. May be True or False
16.

Resistance to methotrexate, which inhibits the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR) is used as a selectable marker. This enzyme is involved in the synthesis of _____ carbon units and is required for _____ biosynthesis.

A. two, nucleoside
B. two, nucleotide
C. one, nucleotide
D. one, nucleoside
Answer» E.
17.

Integration of DNA into the Chlamydomonas genome is via homologous recombination.

A. True
B. False
C. May be True or False
D. Can't say
Answer» C. May be True or False
18.

Mitochondrial genome encodes tRNAs ___________ and polypeptides involved in _______

A. mRNAs, oxidative phosphorylation
B. rRNAs, oxidative phosphorylation
C. rRNAs, reductive phosphorylation
D. mRNAs, reductive phosphorylation
Answer» C. rRNAs, reductive phosphorylation
19.

LNSX is a retrovirus and is combined with ______ in order to create a shuttle vector.

A. eukaryotic plasmid
B. prokaryotic plasmid
C. either eukaryotic or prokaryotic plasmid
D. yeast plasmid
Answer» C. either eukaryotic or prokaryotic plasmid
20.

Glucorticoid-responsive element is ______ promoter from ______ of mouse mammory tumour virus (MMTV).

A. inducible, short terminal repeat region
B. inducible, long terminal repeat region
C. constitutive, short terminal repeat region
D. constitutive, long terminal repeat region
Answer» C. constitutive, short terminal repeat region
21.

Barstar is _________

A. RNAse
B. RNAse inhibitor
C. DNAse
D. DNAse inhibitor
Answer» C. DNAse
22.

There are a group of promoters from the genes for metallothioneins. These are a group of proteins rich in ______ residues.

A. cysteine
B. methionine
C. either cysteine or methionine
D. cysteine and methionine both
Answer» B. methionine
23.

If YAC DNA is digested with BamHI and ECoRI, how many fragments are generated?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer» D. 4
24.

For the generation of recombinant baculovirus, recombinants can be selected by ____________

A. blue-white screening
B. antibiotic resistance
C. either antibiotic resistance or blue white screening
D. radioactivity
Answer» B. antibiotic resistance
25.

Constitutive promoters are majorly obtained from ________

A. fungi
B. bacteria
C. mammalian cells
D. viral cells
Answer» E.
26.

Autographa californica nuclear polyhedrois virus (AcNPV) is commonly used bacilovirus for infecting cultured cells. The virus is ________ and _______

A. single stranded, linear
B. double stranded, linear
C. double stranded, circular
D. single stranded, circular
Answer» D. single stranded, circular
27.

Secretion of overexpressed proteins by fusion to a secretion signal can be useful because it helps in bringing about correct _______ and _____ protein folding.

A. glycosylation, enhance
B. glycosylation, not affect
C. phosphorylation, enhance
D. phosphorylation, not affect
Answer» B. glycosylation, not affect
28.

Which of the following are advantageous to be used for expression of eukaryotic cells?

A. Prokaryotic systems
B. Yeast cells
C. Fungi cells
D. Algae cells
Answer» C. Fungi cells
29.

The leu1+ marker encodes which enzyme?

A. orotidine-5’-phosphate decarboxylase
B. beta isopropylmalate dehydrogenase
C. orotidine-5’-phosphate decarboxylase or beta isopropylmalate dehydrogenase
D. orotidine-5’-phosphate decarboxylase & beta isopropylmalate dehydrogenase
Answer» C. orotidine-5’-phosphate decarboxylase or beta isopropylmalate dehydrogenase
30.

Wild-type Drosophila flies are _____ to ethanol supplied in food.

A. resistant
B. non-resistant
C. resistant at low concentration and non-resistant at higher concentration
D. resistant at higher concentrations and non-resistant at lower concentration
Answer» B. non-resistant
31.

Presence of wild-type DNA onto the HGPRT– in the presence of _______ led to DNA uptake and stable transformation.

A. lithium acetate
B. calcium phosphate
C. sodium chloride
D. aluminum sulphate
Answer» C. sodium chloride
32.

If transfer of DNA from Agrobacterium to plants is done via incubation of explanted material and the vector containing DNA of interest and then selection is done via selectable marker then this method is called as _________

A. transformation
B. co-cultivation
C. co-transformation
D. floral dipping
Answer» C. co-transformation
33.

Allotopic gene expression is the case when the presence of a normal gene in an organelle is not a problem in expression.

A. True
B. False
C. May be True or False
D. Can't say
Answer» B. False
34.

Transfer of T DNA depends on a set of genes called as ______ if they are present on ________

A. vir, chromosome
B. chv, tumour inducing plasmid
C. chv, chromosome
D. vir, whether they are present on tumour inducing plasmid or chromosome
Answer» D. vir, whether they are present on tumour inducing plasmid or chromosome
35.

______ integration systems are used for the transfer of DNA in Drosophila and it is composed of ______

A. Artificial, P elements
B. Artificial, S elements
C. Natural, P elements
D. Natural, S elements
Answer» D. Natural, S elements
36.

Expression of tTA gene is ________ by doxycycline which is _______ analogue.

A. activated, tetracycline
B. inactivated, chloramphenicol
C. activated, chloramphenicol
D. inactivated, tetracycline
Answer» E.
37.

Chlamyodomonas genome is _______ rich.

A. AT
B. GC
C. Only A
D. Only C
Answer» C. Only A
38.

Choose the incorrect statement in respect to MACs.

A. They are mammalian or human artificial chromosomes
B. Large stretches of DNA (in excess of 100 kb) can be inserted
C. A selectable marker is required
D. It can be maintained for long term
Answer» D. It can be maintained for long term
39.

The gene of interest is inserted into transfer vector and then further into viral genome leading to the formation of modified virus. How can plaques from modified virus differentiated from plaques from wild-type virus?

A. Chemically
B. Visually
C. On the basis of magnetic properties
D. On the basis of longeitivity of plaques
Answer» C. On the basis of magnetic properties
40.

For transformation of the chloroplast of higher plants, a vector is used which ______ in the chloroplast.

A. doesn’t replicates
B. replicates
C. may or may not replicate
D. replicates under certain specified conditions
Answer» B. replicates
41.

The amount of expression of DNA inserted into a vector _______ on promoter and ______ on chromosomal location.

A. depends only on, not depends
B. depends, depends also
C. doesn’t depends, but depends
D. neither depends, nor depends
Answer» C. doesn’t depends, but depends
42.

Bacterial aadA gene is responsible for conferring resistance to _________

A. spectinomycin
B. streptomycin
C. ampicillin
D. spectomycin and streptomycin
Answer» E.
43.

Promoters such as GAL1 can be used to direct synthesis of either unmodified or fusion proteins.

A. True
B. False
C. May be True or False
D. Can't say
Answer» B. False
44.

Where do P elements integrate into the genome?

A. At specifically defined sites
B. Randomly
C. Only at the ends of the genome
D. Integration depends on reaction conditions
Answer» C. Only at the ends of the genome
45.

The recombinant virus can be propagated in E.coli and this is referred to as bacmid.

A. True
B. False
C. May be True or False
D. Can't say
Answer» B. False
46.

GAL1 is a controllable promoter and is obtained from genes for galactose metabolism. It is known for encoding ______

A. UDP-galactose-4-empirase
B. Galactokinase
C. Both UDP-galactose-4-empirase and galactokinase
D. Glucokinase
Answer» C. Both UDP-galactose-4-empirase and galactokinase
47.

Cis-acting sites should be present in the vector for ________

A. replication
B. selecting recombinants by acting as a marker
C. transposition
D. providing high copy number
Answer» D. providing high copy number
48.

ES cells are used in order to ensure that insertion is done at the required chromosomal location and it is called as ____________

A. gene targeting
B. knocking out
C. knocking in
D. gene disruption
Answer» B. knocking out
49.

Embryonic stem cells are also used for generation of transgenic organisms. They are obtained from _______ of a developing ________

A. trophoectoderm, gastrula
B. trophoectoderm, blastula
C. inner cell mass, blastula
D. inner cell mass, gastrula
Answer» D. inner cell mass, gastrula
50.

Promoters can be divided basically into how many types?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer» C. 3