Explore topic-wise MCQs in Genetic Engineering.

This section includes 61 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Genetic Engineering knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

Choose the incorrect statement for cre-lox excision.

A. The chromosomal copy of the target gene replaces the target gene flanked by loxP sites
B. The second step is supply of Cre recombinase
C. Integration of cre takes place under a controllable promoter followed by induction of the promoter
D. Induction results in expression of cre, recombination along loxP sites and excision of the sequence between
Answer» B. The second step is supply of Cre recombinase
2.

Excision of DNA flanked by loxP sequences is also known as _________

A. subtle excision
B. croxing
C. floxing
D. sequence specific excision
Answer» D. sequence specific excision
3.

Down regulation of expression of endogenous genes by transformation with constructs that would generate sense RNA, rather than anti-sense RNA is known as ___________

A. suppression
B. co-suppression
C. multisuppression
D. anti-suppression
Answer» C. multisuppression
4.

In some organisms, presence of double stranded RNAs leads to breakdown of corresponding single stranded mRNA.

A. True
B. False
C. May be True or False
D. Can't say
Answer» B. False
5.

The ________ protein of bacteriophage P1 mediates site-specific recombination at a 34 bp sequence, loxP.

A. cre recombinase
B. gene II
C. gene IV
D. gene VIII
Answer» B. gene II
6.

Hepatitis delta virus capable of self cleavage.

A. True
B. False
C. May be True or False
D. Can't say
Answer» B. False
7.

siRNAs can either be introduced directly or by microinjection.

A. True
B. False
C. May be True or False
D. Can't say
Answer» B. False
8.

Double stranded RNA is cleaved by a nuclease called as Dicer and small fragments are generated known as ___________

A. short interfering RNAs
B. long interfering RNAs
C. short interspersed RNAs
D. long interspersed RNAs
Answer» B. long interfering RNAs
9.

DNA _________ is also a method for gene silencing through short RNAs.

A. acetylation
B. phosphorylation
C. methylation
D. acylation
Answer» D. acylation
10.

RNA molecule with catalytic activity is termed as________

A. ribosomes
B. catalytic RNA
C. reactive RNA
D. ribozyme
Answer» E.
11.

Choose the correct statement for self cleavage reaction.

A. It is nucleophilic attack reaction by 2’ hydroxyl of RNA
B. It is nucleophilic attack reaction by 3’ hydroxyl of RNA
C. It is nucleophilic attack reaction by 2’ hydroxyl of DNA
D. It is nucleophilic attack reaction by 3’ hydroxyl of DNA
Answer» B. It is nucleophilic attack reaction by 3’ hydroxyl of RNA
12.

The process of RNA inactivation by siRNAs is termed as ___________

A. RNA silencing
B. RNA interference
C. Short RNA inactivation
D. RNA disfunction
Answer» C. Short RNA inactivation
13.

Cre can be introduced by crossing it with a strain containing the gene or by infection with virus containing it.

A. True
B. False
C. May be True or False
D. Can't say
Answer» B. False
14.

Self cleavage reaction can take place in?

A. DNA
B. RNA
C. Both DNA and RNA
D. Can take place in both but is preferred in DNA
Answer» C. Both DNA and RNA
15.

Introduction into host organism can also be done by using a DNA construct, which when transcribed, generates an RNA which is _________

A. circular
B. linear
C. double stranded
D. self-complementary
Answer» E.
16.

The ability to control the expression of cre allows controlling what?

A. recombination
B. replication
C. excision
D. packaging
Answer» D. packaging
17.

How much effect is there on the surrounding genes by the loxP sequence which is left after recombination has taken place?

A. Little effect
B. No effect
C. Huge effect
D. It depends on the nature of the surrounding gene
Answer» C. Huge effect
18.

Once second strand synthesis is carried out, it is introduced into the host. Host is having which mutation?

A. mutS mutation
B. mutD mutation
C. mutE mutation
D. mutG mutation
Answer» B. mutD mutation
19.

Choose the incorrect statement for the methodology of selection of molecules with mutant sequences.

A. A vector is used which is having antibiotic resistance gene
B. Apart from antibiotic resistance gene, a second antibiotic resistance gene is also present
C. There are two mutagenic primers which are used
D. The second strand synthesis is carried out by only one primer
Answer» E.
20.

In a phosphothiorate nucleotide, oxygen atom is replaced by with atom?

A. Magnesium
B. Calcium
C. Sodium
D. Sulphur
Answer» E.
21.

Replication by first strand leads to the formation of mutated molecules and functional antibiotic resistant gene.

A. True
B. False
C. May be True or False
D. Can't say
Answer» C. May be True or False
22.

For the selection of the molecules having mutated sequence, which of the statement is true?

A. It is suitable for methods which are PCR based
B. It is suitable for methods which are not PCR based
C. It is suitable for both PCR and not PCR based
D. Selection of molecules with the mutant sequence is not possible
Answer» C. It is suitable for both PCR and not PCR based
23.

A megaprimer method is a ____ stage approach and uses _____ oligonucleotide primers.

A. two, two
B. two, three
C. one, two
D. one, three
Answer» C. one, two
24.

Sometimes mutagenesis is carried out with the help of primers. Choose the correct statement with respect to it.

A. Double stranded circular molecule is used as a template
B. Mutation is introduced into one of flanking primers
C. Single stranded circular molecule is used as a template
D. After amplification, mutation is introduced into one strand
Answer» B. Mutation is introduced into one of flanking primers
25.

PCR using the mutagenic primer and one of the flanking primers is used to carry out amplification and generates a product corresponding to the part of the gene. It is called as megaprimer.

A. True
B. False
C. May be True or False
D. Can't say
Answer» B. False
26.

If PCR is used to introduce random mutations rather than specific mutations, it is called as ___________

A. mutagenic PCR
B. error-prone PCR
C. random PCR
D. general PCR
Answer» C. random PCR
27.

It is easier to subclone a restriction fragment if it belongs to?

A. small gene
B. large gene
C. prokaryotic organism
D. eukaryotic organism
Answer» C. prokaryotic organism
28.

If mixed oligonucleotides are used, it is regarded as ______________

A. mixed mutagenesis
B. multiple mutagenesis
C. cassette mutagenesis
D. polymutagenesis
Answer» D. polymutagenesis
29.

Once the double stranded molecule with the mutation is introduced into E. coli for replication, how many types of molecules are produced?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer» C. 3
30.

Several different mutations can be induced at one site.

A. True
B. False
C. May be True or False
D. Can't say
Answer» B. False
31.

How many sites can be mutated at a time?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. Many
Answer» E.
32.

Bisulphite ions are used to deaminate ________ residues in _______ DNA.

A. C, double stranded
B. C, single stranded
C. U, double stranded
D. U, single stranded
Answer» C. U, double stranded
33.

Which of the following statement is incorrect for the synthesis of the second strand?

A. The oligonucleotide is acting as a primer for the synthesis of the second strand
B. DNA polymerase and dNTPs are added for synthesis
C. The polymerase should have 5’-3’ exonuclease activity
D. A polymerase having 5’-3’ exonuclease activity would degrade the primer that carries the mutant sequence
Answer» D. A polymerase having 5’-3’ exonuclease activity would degrade the primer that carries the mutant sequence
34.

For mutagenesis without PCR, which of the following can be used as a template?

A. Single stranded DNA
B. Double stranded DNA
C. Circular DNA
D. Both single and double stranded DNA
Answer» E.
35.

An oligonucleotide is synthesized which contains the mutation and the rest is _______ to the template DNA.

A. complementary
B. non-complementary
C. can either be complementary or non-complementary
D. not related
Answer» B. non-complementary
36.

If the template is double stranded, they need to be separated before annealing of oligonucleotide.

A. True
B. False
C. May be True or False
D. Can't say
Answer» B. False
37.

If methods are based on cellular processes that lead to inactivation of gene expression by affecting the RNA, then it is called as ___________

A. transcriptional
B. pre-transcriptional
C. post-transcriptional
D. translational
Answer» D. translational
38.

If the target organism contains more than one copy of the gene, what is the effect on these copies?

A. Only copy is disrupted
B. All the copies are disrupted
C. It is difficult to ensure that all the copies are disrupted
D. Only a specified number of copies are disrupted
Answer» D. Only a specified number of copies are disrupted
39.

Choose the incorrect statement for the method based on antisense RNA.

A. RNA is synthesized complementary to the sequence of the gene which is to be inactivated
B. It is achieved by placing a DNA sequence which encodes RNA complementary to the RNA to be inactivated
C. Expression of the endogenous gene is diminished
D. This method is preferred over gene disruption has gene inactivation can be achieved completely
Answer» E.
40.

The method of post transcriptional gene silencing is particularly useful in ___________

A. plants
B. animals
C. insects
D. microorganisms
Answer» B. animals
41.

If ______ gene is there, the double crossover may leave ________ in the chromosome.

A. linear, functional copy
B. circular, functional copy
C. linear, a non-functional copy
D. circular, a non-functional copy
Answer» C. linear, a non-functional copy
42.

The disrupted gene is excised from the vector and is inserted into the target organism. The excised gene should be in which form?

A. Circular
B. Supercoiled
C. Either supercoiled or circular
D. Linear
Answer» E.
43.

The gene to be disrupted is cloned and a selectable marker is inserted. What should be the effect of selectable marker?

A. It should have no effect on target gene
B. It should make the target gene non-functional
C. There is no restriction; it can be either functional or non-functional
D. It should improvise the chances of survival of the target gene
Answer» C. There is no restriction; it can be either functional or non-functional
44.

Stable acquisition of the marker can take place only if a double crossover over the flanking sequence and their chromosomal counterparts causes the marker’s integration into the chromosome.

A. True
B. False
C. May be True or False
D. Can't say
Answer» B. False
45.

The principle of gene disruption is ________ to replace the endogenous chromosomal copy of a gene with __________

A. homologous recombination, inactivated gene
B. reciprocal translocation, inactivated gene
C. homologous recombination, activated gene
D. reciprocal translocation, activated gene
Answer» B. reciprocal translocation, inactivated gene
46.

How can mutant strains be produced?

A. In systematic mutagenesis programmes
B. In individual organisms
C. Both by individual organisms and systematic mutagenesis programmes
D. Apart from these two, other methods are also used
Answer» D. Apart from these two, other methods are also used
47.

DpnI cuts ________ strands.

A. methylated
B. non-methylated
C. phosphorylated
D. non-phosphorylated
Answer» B. non-methylated
48.

What is the function of ung gene?

A. It is responsible for deamination of cytosine
B. It is responsible for deamination of uracil
C. It is responsible for removal of uracil
D. It is responsible for removal of cytosine
Answer» D. It is responsible for removal of cytosine
49.

It is often useful to inactivate endogenous genes in an organism. It might be helpful in finding out _________ role of the wild type gene.

A. biological
B. chemical
C. physiological
D. anatomical
Answer» D. anatomical
50.

The minor change in amino acid sequence can lead to _______ effect on three dimensional structure and there _____ in the primary sequence.

A. huge, may be no change
B. no, may be huge change
C. very less, is very less change
D. huge, would be huge change
Answer» B. no, may be huge change