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This section includes 61 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Genetic Engineering knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.
1. |
Choose the incorrect statement for cre-lox excision. |
A. | The chromosomal copy of the target gene replaces the target gene flanked by loxP sites |
B. | The second step is supply of Cre recombinase |
C. | Integration of cre takes place under a controllable promoter followed by induction of the promoter |
D. | Induction results in expression of cre, recombination along loxP sites and excision of the sequence between |
Answer» B. The second step is supply of Cre recombinase | |
2. |
Excision of DNA flanked by loxP sequences is also known as _________ |
A. | subtle excision |
B. | croxing |
C. | floxing |
D. | sequence specific excision |
Answer» D. sequence specific excision | |
3. |
Down regulation of expression of endogenous genes by transformation with constructs that would generate sense RNA, rather than anti-sense RNA is known as ___________ |
A. | suppression |
B. | co-suppression |
C. | multisuppression |
D. | anti-suppression |
Answer» C. multisuppression | |
4. |
In some organisms, presence of double stranded RNAs leads to breakdown of corresponding single stranded mRNA. |
A. | True |
B. | False |
C. | May be True or False |
D. | Can't say |
Answer» B. False | |
5. |
The ________ protein of bacteriophage P1 mediates site-specific recombination at a 34 bp sequence, loxP. |
A. | cre recombinase |
B. | gene II |
C. | gene IV |
D. | gene VIII |
Answer» B. gene II | |
6. |
Hepatitis delta virus capable of self cleavage. |
A. | True |
B. | False |
C. | May be True or False |
D. | Can't say |
Answer» B. False | |
7. |
siRNAs can either be introduced directly or by microinjection. |
A. | True |
B. | False |
C. | May be True or False |
D. | Can't say |
Answer» B. False | |
8. |
Double stranded RNA is cleaved by a nuclease called as Dicer and small fragments are generated known as ___________ |
A. | short interfering RNAs |
B. | long interfering RNAs |
C. | short interspersed RNAs |
D. | long interspersed RNAs |
Answer» B. long interfering RNAs | |
9. |
DNA _________ is also a method for gene silencing through short RNAs. |
A. | acetylation |
B. | phosphorylation |
C. | methylation |
D. | acylation |
Answer» D. acylation | |
10. |
RNA molecule with catalytic activity is termed as________ |
A. | ribosomes |
B. | catalytic RNA |
C. | reactive RNA |
D. | ribozyme |
Answer» E. | |
11. |
Choose the correct statement for self cleavage reaction. |
A. | It is nucleophilic attack reaction by 2’ hydroxyl of RNA |
B. | It is nucleophilic attack reaction by 3’ hydroxyl of RNA |
C. | It is nucleophilic attack reaction by 2’ hydroxyl of DNA |
D. | It is nucleophilic attack reaction by 3’ hydroxyl of DNA |
Answer» B. It is nucleophilic attack reaction by 3’ hydroxyl of RNA | |
12. |
The process of RNA inactivation by siRNAs is termed as ___________ |
A. | RNA silencing |
B. | RNA interference |
C. | Short RNA inactivation |
D. | RNA disfunction |
Answer» C. Short RNA inactivation | |
13. |
Cre can be introduced by crossing it with a strain containing the gene or by infection with virus containing it. |
A. | True |
B. | False |
C. | May be True or False |
D. | Can't say |
Answer» B. False | |
14. |
Self cleavage reaction can take place in? |
A. | DNA |
B. | RNA |
C. | Both DNA and RNA |
D. | Can take place in both but is preferred in DNA |
Answer» C. Both DNA and RNA | |
15. |
Introduction into host organism can also be done by using a DNA construct, which when transcribed, generates an RNA which is _________ |
A. | circular |
B. | linear |
C. | double stranded |
D. | self-complementary |
Answer» E. | |
16. |
The ability to control the expression of cre allows controlling what? |
A. | recombination |
B. | replication |
C. | excision |
D. | packaging |
Answer» D. packaging | |
17. |
How much effect is there on the surrounding genes by the loxP sequence which is left after recombination has taken place? |
A. | Little effect |
B. | No effect |
C. | Huge effect |
D. | It depends on the nature of the surrounding gene |
Answer» C. Huge effect | |
18. |
Once second strand synthesis is carried out, it is introduced into the host. Host is having which mutation? |
A. | mutS mutation |
B. | mutD mutation |
C. | mutE mutation |
D. | mutG mutation |
Answer» B. mutD mutation | |
19. |
Choose the incorrect statement for the methodology of selection of molecules with mutant sequences. |
A. | A vector is used which is having antibiotic resistance gene |
B. | Apart from antibiotic resistance gene, a second antibiotic resistance gene is also present |
C. | There are two mutagenic primers which are used |
D. | The second strand synthesis is carried out by only one primer |
Answer» E. | |
20. |
In a phosphothiorate nucleotide, oxygen atom is replaced by with atom? |
A. | Magnesium |
B. | Calcium |
C. | Sodium |
D. | Sulphur |
Answer» E. | |
21. |
Replication by first strand leads to the formation of mutated molecules and functional antibiotic resistant gene. |
A. | True |
B. | False |
C. | May be True or False |
D. | Can't say |
Answer» C. May be True or False | |
22. |
For the selection of the molecules having mutated sequence, which of the statement is true? |
A. | It is suitable for methods which are PCR based |
B. | It is suitable for methods which are not PCR based |
C. | It is suitable for both PCR and not PCR based |
D. | Selection of molecules with the mutant sequence is not possible |
Answer» C. It is suitable for both PCR and not PCR based | |
23. |
A megaprimer method is a ____ stage approach and uses _____ oligonucleotide primers. |
A. | two, two |
B. | two, three |
C. | one, two |
D. | one, three |
Answer» C. one, two | |
24. |
Sometimes mutagenesis is carried out with the help of primers. Choose the correct statement with respect to it. |
A. | Double stranded circular molecule is used as a template |
B. | Mutation is introduced into one of flanking primers |
C. | Single stranded circular molecule is used as a template |
D. | After amplification, mutation is introduced into one strand |
Answer» B. Mutation is introduced into one of flanking primers | |
25. |
PCR using the mutagenic primer and one of the flanking primers is used to carry out amplification and generates a product corresponding to the part of the gene. It is called as megaprimer. |
A. | True |
B. | False |
C. | May be True or False |
D. | Can't say |
Answer» B. False | |
26. |
If PCR is used to introduce random mutations rather than specific mutations, it is called as ___________ |
A. | mutagenic PCR |
B. | error-prone PCR |
C. | random PCR |
D. | general PCR |
Answer» C. random PCR | |
27. |
It is easier to subclone a restriction fragment if it belongs to? |
A. | small gene |
B. | large gene |
C. | prokaryotic organism |
D. | eukaryotic organism |
Answer» C. prokaryotic organism | |
28. |
If mixed oligonucleotides are used, it is regarded as ______________ |
A. | mixed mutagenesis |
B. | multiple mutagenesis |
C. | cassette mutagenesis |
D. | polymutagenesis |
Answer» D. polymutagenesis | |
29. |
Once the double stranded molecule with the mutation is introduced into E. coli for replication, how many types of molecules are produced? |
A. | 1 |
B. | 2 |
C. | 3 |
D. | 4 |
Answer» C. 3 | |
30. |
Several different mutations can be induced at one site. |
A. | True |
B. | False |
C. | May be True or False |
D. | Can't say |
Answer» B. False | |
31. |
How many sites can be mutated at a time? |
A. | 1 |
B. | 2 |
C. | 3 |
D. | Many |
Answer» E. | |
32. |
Bisulphite ions are used to deaminate ________ residues in _______ DNA. |
A. | C, double stranded |
B. | C, single stranded |
C. | U, double stranded |
D. | U, single stranded |
Answer» C. U, double stranded | |
33. |
Which of the following statement is incorrect for the synthesis of the second strand? |
A. | The oligonucleotide is acting as a primer for the synthesis of the second strand |
B. | DNA polymerase and dNTPs are added for synthesis |
C. | The polymerase should have 5’-3’ exonuclease activity |
D. | A polymerase having 5’-3’ exonuclease activity would degrade the primer that carries the mutant sequence |
Answer» D. A polymerase having 5’-3’ exonuclease activity would degrade the primer that carries the mutant sequence | |
34. |
For mutagenesis without PCR, which of the following can be used as a template? |
A. | Single stranded DNA |
B. | Double stranded DNA |
C. | Circular DNA |
D. | Both single and double stranded DNA |
Answer» E. | |
35. |
An oligonucleotide is synthesized which contains the mutation and the rest is _______ to the template DNA. |
A. | complementary |
B. | non-complementary |
C. | can either be complementary or non-complementary |
D. | not related |
Answer» B. non-complementary | |
36. |
If the template is double stranded, they need to be separated before annealing of oligonucleotide. |
A. | True |
B. | False |
C. | May be True or False |
D. | Can't say |
Answer» B. False | |
37. |
If methods are based on cellular processes that lead to inactivation of gene expression by affecting the RNA, then it is called as ___________ |
A. | transcriptional |
B. | pre-transcriptional |
C. | post-transcriptional |
D. | translational |
Answer» D. translational | |
38. |
If the target organism contains more than one copy of the gene, what is the effect on these copies? |
A. | Only copy is disrupted |
B. | All the copies are disrupted |
C. | It is difficult to ensure that all the copies are disrupted |
D. | Only a specified number of copies are disrupted |
Answer» D. Only a specified number of copies are disrupted | |
39. |
Choose the incorrect statement for the method based on antisense RNA. |
A. | RNA is synthesized complementary to the sequence of the gene which is to be inactivated |
B. | It is achieved by placing a DNA sequence which encodes RNA complementary to the RNA to be inactivated |
C. | Expression of the endogenous gene is diminished |
D. | This method is preferred over gene disruption has gene inactivation can be achieved completely |
Answer» E. | |
40. |
The method of post transcriptional gene silencing is particularly useful in ___________ |
A. | plants |
B. | animals |
C. | insects |
D. | microorganisms |
Answer» B. animals | |
41. |
If ______ gene is there, the double crossover may leave ________ in the chromosome. |
A. | linear, functional copy |
B. | circular, functional copy |
C. | linear, a non-functional copy |
D. | circular, a non-functional copy |
Answer» C. linear, a non-functional copy | |
42. |
The disrupted gene is excised from the vector and is inserted into the target organism. The excised gene should be in which form? |
A. | Circular |
B. | Supercoiled |
C. | Either supercoiled or circular |
D. | Linear |
Answer» E. | |
43. |
The gene to be disrupted is cloned and a selectable marker is inserted. What should be the effect of selectable marker? |
A. | It should have no effect on target gene |
B. | It should make the target gene non-functional |
C. | There is no restriction; it can be either functional or non-functional |
D. | It should improvise the chances of survival of the target gene |
Answer» C. There is no restriction; it can be either functional or non-functional | |
44. |
Stable acquisition of the marker can take place only if a double crossover over the flanking sequence and their chromosomal counterparts causes the marker’s integration into the chromosome. |
A. | True |
B. | False |
C. | May be True or False |
D. | Can't say |
Answer» B. False | |
45. |
The principle of gene disruption is ________ to replace the endogenous chromosomal copy of a gene with __________ |
A. | homologous recombination, inactivated gene |
B. | reciprocal translocation, inactivated gene |
C. | homologous recombination, activated gene |
D. | reciprocal translocation, activated gene |
Answer» B. reciprocal translocation, inactivated gene | |
46. |
How can mutant strains be produced? |
A. | In systematic mutagenesis programmes |
B. | In individual organisms |
C. | Both by individual organisms and systematic mutagenesis programmes |
D. | Apart from these two, other methods are also used |
Answer» D. Apart from these two, other methods are also used | |
47. |
DpnI cuts ________ strands. |
A. | methylated |
B. | non-methylated |
C. | phosphorylated |
D. | non-phosphorylated |
Answer» B. non-methylated | |
48. |
What is the function of ung gene? |
A. | It is responsible for deamination of cytosine |
B. | It is responsible for deamination of uracil |
C. | It is responsible for removal of uracil |
D. | It is responsible for removal of cytosine |
Answer» D. It is responsible for removal of cytosine | |
49. |
It is often useful to inactivate endogenous genes in an organism. It might be helpful in finding out _________ role of the wild type gene. |
A. | biological |
B. | chemical |
C. | physiological |
D. | anatomical |
Answer» D. anatomical | |
50. |
The minor change in amino acid sequence can lead to _______ effect on three dimensional structure and there _____ in the primary sequence. |
A. | huge, may be no change |
B. | no, may be huge change |
C. | very less, is very less change |
D. | huge, would be huge change |
Answer» B. no, may be huge change | |