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MCQOPTIONS
This section includes 2618 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your UPSC IAS Exam knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.
| 1951. |
Match list I with list II and select the correct answer using the codes given below: List-I (Source) List-II (Tax) A. Taxes levied by the union but collected and appropriated by the states 1. Taxes on income other than agriculture B. Taxes levied, collected and retained by the states 2. Starmp duties C. Taxes levied and collected by the centre but assigned to the states 3. Capitation tax D. Taxes levied and collected by the centre and the states 4. Taxes on lands and buildings 5. Taxes on consignment of goods in the course of inter- state trade Codes: |
| A. | A-1 B-5 C-4 D-2 |
| B. | A-2 B-4 C-5 D-1 |
| C. | A-1 B-3 C-5 D-2 |
| D. | A-2 B-5 C-4 D-1 |
| Answer» C. A-1 B-3 C-5 D-2 | |
| 1952. |
Who appoints the Chairman and other members of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)? |
| A. | The Prime Minister |
| B. | The President |
| C. | The Chief Justice of India |
| D. | Speaker of the Lok Sabha |
| Answer» C. The Chief Justice of India | |
| 1953. |
Which of the following is/are true with regard to the powers and functions of the Central Information Commission? Choose from the codes given. 1. To receive and inquire into a complaint from any public personnel 2. To order inquiry into any matter if there are reasonable grounds 3. To ignore attendance of the required members if the Chief Information Commissioner so desires 4. To receive evidence an affidavit |
| A. | 1, 2, 3 |
| B. | 1, 3, 4 |
| C. | 1, 2, 4 |
| D. | 2, 3, 4 |
| Answer» D. 2, 3, 4 | |
| 1954. |
Which one of the following is the function of the National Commission for Minorities? |
| A. | To monitor the working of the safeguards provided for minorities |
| B. | To summon any person and enforce the attendance of any person |
| C. | To ask for the production of any document |
| D. | To receive evidence on affidavit |
| Answer» B. To summon any person and enforce the attendance of any person | |
| 1955. |
Assertion (A): There has been a growing demand for review of Centre-State relationships. Reason (R): The states have no adequate resources to take up developmental projects. Codes: |
| A. | Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A |
| B. | Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A |
| C. | A is true but R is false |
| D. | A is false but R is true |
| Answer» B. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A | |
| 1956. |
Which one of the following is true with regard to the procedure of amendment as is incorporated in Article 368? |
| A. | The required majority is two-thirds of the members of each House of Parliament. |
| B. | The required majority is two-thirds of the members of each House of the Parliament, present in the House. |
| C. | The required majority is two-thirds of the members of each House of the Parliament, voting in the House. |
| D. | The required majority is two-thirds of the members of each Houses of the Parliament, present and voting. |
| Answer» E. | |
| 1957. |
Which Article of the Constitution of India has provided for the office of the Advocate General of the States? |
| A. | Article 163 |
| B. | Article 168 |
| C. | Article 165 |
| D. | Article 169 |
| Answer» D. Article 169 | |
| 1958. |
Who, among the following, has the power to amend the provisions of salaries and allowances of the ministers in the states? |
| A. | Parliament of India |
| B. | President of India |
| C. | Governor of India (concerned state) |
| D. | Concerned state legislature |
| Answer» E. | |
| 1959. |
Which of the following Constitutional Amendments have added Article 15 (5) in the Constitution of India providing for reservation in educational institutions in the private sector also? |
| A. | 81st Amendment |
| B. | 86th Amendment |
| C. | 91st Amendment |
| D. | 93rd Amendment |
| Answer» E. | |
| 1960. |
Consider the following statements: 1. The Central Information Commission can order inquiry into any matter if there are reasonable grounds. 2. The Central Information Commission has the power to secure compliance of its decisions from the public authority. Which of the statements given above is / are correct? |
| A. | Only 1 |
| B. | Only 2 |
| C. | Both 1 and 2 |
| D. | Neither 1 nor 2 |
| Answer» D. Neither 1 nor 2 | |
| 1961. |
Which of the following feature/s of the constitution of India has/have been borrowed from GOI Act 1935: 1. Office of the Governor. 2. Emergency Provisions. 3. Legislative Procedure. 4. Bicameralism. 5. Federation with a strong center. |
| A. | 1, 2 & 4 only |
| B. | 1, 3, 4 & 5 only |
| C. | 1 & 2 only |
| D. | None of the above options are correct |
| Answer» D. None of the above options are correct | |
| 1962. |
There are provisions in the Constitution of India which empower the Parliament to modify or annuel the operation of certain provisions of the Constitution without actually amending them. They include1. any law made under Article 2 (relating to admission or establishment of new states)2. any law made under Article 3 (relating to formation of new states)3. amendment of First Schedule and Fourth Schedule.Select the correct answer using the codes given below |
| A. | 1 and 2 |
| B. | 2 and 3 |
| C. | 2 and 3 |
| D. | None of these |
| Answer» D. None of these | |
| 1963. |
One whose recommendation can Parliament take up a bill altering the boundaries and names of a state? |
| A. | The President of India |
| B. | The Vice-President of India |
| C. | The Speaker of the Lok Sabha |
| D. | The concerned state assembly |
| Answer» B. The Vice-President of India | |
| 1964. |
Which one of the following is not one of the three special wings of the Niti Aayog? |
| A. | Research Wing |
| B. | Secrecy Wing |
| C. | Consultancy Wing |
| D. | Team India Wing |
| Answer» C. Consultancy Wing | |
| 1965. |
Match List-1 with List-11 and select the correct answer:List-I (Item in the Indian Constitution)List-II (Country from which it was derived)a.Directive Principles of State Policy1.Australiab.Fundamental Rights2.Canadac.Concurrent List in Union-State Relations3.Irelandd.India as a Union of States with greater powers to the Union4.United Kingdom 5.United States of AmericaCodes: |
| A. | A-5, B-4, C-1, D-2 |
| B. | A-3, B-5, C-2, D-1 |
| C. | A-5, B-4, C-2, D-1 |
| D. | A-3, B-5, C-1, D-2 |
| Answer» E. | |
| 1966. |
Which of the following is correct about the Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1950 |
| A. | provides new grounds of restrictions to the right to freedom of speech and expression |
| B. | Provides new grounds of restrictions to the right to practice any profession or to carry on any trade or business |
| C. | Inserted two new Articles 31A and 31B and the Ninth Schedule to give protection from challenge to land reform laws |
| D. | All the above |
| Answer» E. | |
| 1967. |
Which of the following articles are correctly matched:1. Election Commission Article 338.2. Finance Commission Article 280.3. National Commission for SCs Article. 3244. CAG Article 148.5. Attorney General of India Article 76. |
| A. | All except 1 & 5. |
| B. | All except 1 & 3. |
| C. | All except 2 &5. |
| D. | None of the above options are correct. |
| Answer» B. All except 1 & 3. | |
| 1968. |
The ultimate responsibility of taking due action on the comments of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India vests with the: |
| A. | President of India |
| B. | Supreme Court |
| C. | Parliament |
| D. | National Development Council |
| Answer» D. National Development Council | |
| 1969. |
Which state of the Union has the distinction of being described as the associate state of India? |
| A. | Nagaland |
| B. | Sikkim |
| C. | Arunachal Pradesh |
| D. | Mizoram |
| Answer» C. Arunachal Pradesh | |
| 1970. |
The size of the Council of Ministers, as per 91st Amendment, is restricted to one of the following percentages of the total strength of the lower House of the legislature. Which one is it? |
| A. | 10% |
| B. | 0.15 |
| C. | 16% |
| D. | 0.2 |
| Answer» C. 16% | |
| 1971. |
The Constitution of India recognises: |
| A. | only religious minorities |
| B. | only linguistic minorities |
| C. | religious and linguistic minorities |
| D. | religious, linguistic and ethnic minorities |
| Answer» D. religious, linguistic and ethnic minorities | |
| 1972. |
Which of the following provisions of the constitution reveal the secular character of the Indian State: 1. The state shall not deny to any person equality before the law. 2. No religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution maintained by the state. 3. The state shall endeavour to secure for all citizens a uniform Civil Code. 4. Any section of the society shall have the right to conserve its distinct language. |
| A. | 1, 2, 3 only |
| B. | 2 only |
| C. | 2 & 3 only |
| D. | 1, 2, 3 & 4 |
| Answer» E. | |
| 1973. |
Which case determined that the Preamble is a part of me constitution? |
| A. | Berubari Union case |
| B. | Kesavananda Bharati case |
| C. | Golaknath case |
| D. | Minerva Mills case |
| Answer» C. Golaknath case | |
| 1974. |
Which one of the following is not a part of the "basic structure' of the Indian constitution? |
| A. | Rule of law |
| B. | Secularism |
| C. | Republican form of government |
| D. | Parliamentary form of government |
| Answer» E. | |
| 1975. |
Who of the following is not a member of the committee that recommends the appointment of the Central Vigilance Commissioner? |
| A. | Prime Minister |
| B. | Home Minister |
| C. | Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha |
| D. | Speaker of the Lok Sabha |
| Answer» E. | |
| 1976. |
The Constitution (93rd Amendment) Act deals with: |
| A. | Local self-government |
| B. | Extension of reservation in educational institutions |
| C. | Basic structure of the Constitution of India |
| D. | Appointment of judges in the Supreme Court of India |
| Answer» C. Basic structure of the Constitution of India | |
| 1977. |
The 731 Amendment owes its existence to |
| A. | Article 39 |
| B. | Article 40 |
| C. | Article 41 |
| D. | Article 42 |
| Answer» C. Article 41 | |
| 1978. |
Which act provided for direct control of Indian affairs by the British Government? |
| A. | Charter Act of 1858 |
| B. | Regulating Act of 1773 |
| C. | Pitts India Act of 1784 |
| D. | Charter Act of 1833 |
| Answer» D. Charter Act of 1833 | |
| 1979. |
Consider the following statements: 1. The translation of the constitution and its every amendment published shall be construed to have the same meaning as the original text in English. 2. The translation of the constitution and its every amendment published shall be deemed to be, for all purposes, its authoritative text in Hindi. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? |
| A. | Only 1 |
| B. | Only 2 |
| C. | Both 1 and 2 |
| D. | Neither 1 nor 2 |
| Answer» D. Neither 1 nor 2 | |
| 1980. |
On whose recommendations is/are the election commissioner(s) removed? |
| A. | Prime Minister |
| B. | President |
| C. | Chief Justice of India |
| D. | Chief Election Commissioner |
| Answer» E. | |
| 1981. |
Through which one of the following amendments was Schedule 9 incorporated in the constitution? |
| A. | 1st Amendment |
| B. | 2nd Amendment |
| C. | 3rd Amendment |
| D. | 4th Amendment |
| Answer» B. 2nd Amendment | |
| 1982. |
If a new state of the Indian Union is to be created, which one of the following schedules of the Constitution must be amended? |
| A. | First |
| B. | Second |
| C. | Third |
| D. | Fifth |
| Answer» B. Second | |
| 1983. |
Under which of the following conditions can citizenship be provided in India? 1. One should be born in India. 2. Either of whose parents was born in India 3. Who has been a resident of India for not less than five years. Select the correct answer using the codes given below |
| A. | 1, 2 and 3 |
| B. | land 2 |
| C. | 2 and 3 |
| D. | None of these |
| Answer» B. land 2 | |
| 1984. |
How many articles are there in the Indian constitution? |
| A. | 395 |
| B. | 396 |
| C. | 398 |
| D. | 399 |
| Answer» B. 396 | |
| 1985. |
How is the Competition Commission constituted? |
| A. | One Chairman and five members |
| B. | One Chairman and six members |
| C. | One Chairman and four members |
| D. | One Chairman and three members |
| Answer» C. One Chairman and four members | |
| 1986. |
The Central Information Commission submits its annual report to the: |
| A. | President |
| B. | Parliament |
| C. | Supreme Court |
| D. | Central Government |
| Answer» E. | |
| 1987. |
Which one of the following schedules of the Indian Constitution lists the names of states and specifies their territories? |
| A. | First |
| B. | Second |
| C. | Third |
| D. | Fourth |
| Answer» B. Second | |
| 1988. |
Which of the following constitutional amendment acts gave a constitutional status and protection to the co-operative societies? |
| A. | 95th Amendment |
| B. | 96th Amendment |
| C. | 97th Amendment |
| D. | 98th Amendment |
| Answer» D. 98th Amendment | |
| 1989. |
Consider the following with regard to the procedure of amendment of the Indian Constitution: 1. Article 368 deals with the procedure of amendment. 2. States in India can initiate amendment proposals relating to the abolition and retention of the Legislative Councils. 3. States can ratify the amending proposals with atleast two-thirds of their numbers. 4. A joint meeting of the two Houses of Parliament can be convened to resolve deadlock between the two Houses over any amending proposal. Select the code with the correct statements. |
| A. | 1, 2 |
| B. | 1, 3 |
| C. | 1, 4 |
| D. | 3, 4 |
| Answer» B. 1, 3 | |
| 1990. |
Verdicts of the Supreme Court of India in which of the following cases have a direct bearing on Centre-State relations? 1. S.R. Bommai Case 2. Kesavananda Bharad Case 3. Menaka Case 4. Indra Sawhney Case Select the correct answer using the codes given below: |
| A. | Only 1 |
| B. | 1 and 2 |
| C. | 1, 2 and 3 |
| D. | 2, 3 and 4 |
| Answer» B. 1 and 2 | |
| 1991. |
Consider the following statements: 1. An amendment of the Constitution of India can be initiated by the introduction of a Bill only in the Lok Sabha. 2. The Bill for amendment of the Constitution of India has to be passed in each House by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-third of the members of that House present and voting. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? |
| A. | Only 1 |
| B. | Only 2 |
| C. | Both 1 and 2 |
| D. | Neither 1 nor 2 |
| Answer» C. Both 1 and 2 | |
| 1992. |
What is the composition of the Finance Commission? |
| A. | Chairman and two other members |
| B. | Chairman and 3 other members |
| C. | Chairman and 4 other members |
| D. | Chairman and 5 other members |
| Answer» D. Chairman and 5 other members | |
| 1993. |
What percentage of women work in the rural sector? |
| A. | Nearly 20% |
| B. | Nearly 30% |
| C. | Nearly 40% |
| D. | Nearly 50% |
| Answer» C. Nearly 40% | |
| 1994. |
Who appoints the members of the Competition Commission? |
| A. | The President |
| B. | The Union Government |
| C. | The State Governor |
| D. | The Prime Minister |
| Answer» C. The State Governor | |
| 1995. |
Which of the following Constitutional Amendments are related to raising the number of Members of Lok Sabha to be elected from the States? |
| A. | 6th and 22nd |
| B. | 13th and 38th |
| C. | 7th and 31st |
| D. | 11 th and 42nd |
| Answer» D. 11 th and 42nd | |
| 1996. |
Which of the following cabinet committees is chaired by the Union Home Minister? |
| A. | Parliamentary Affairs Committee |
| B. | Economic Affairs Committee |
| C. | Political Affairs Committee |
| D. | Appointments Committee |
| Answer» B. Economic Affairs Committee | |
| 1997. |
The remuneration of the Attorney General of India is determined by: |
| A. | Parliament of India |
| B. | President of India |
| C. | Prime Minister of India |
| D. | Union Cabinet |
| Answer» C. Prime Minister of India | |
| 1998. |
The Central Bureau of Investigation was set-up by: |
| A. | An Act of the Parliament |
| B. | An Amendment to the Constitution |
| C. | A Resolution of the Home Ministry |
| D. | A Resolution of the Personnel Ministry |
| Answer» D. A Resolution of the Personnel Ministry | |
| 1999. |
Which of the following matches? |
| A. | 31st Amendment: Defection declared invalid |
| B. | 42nd Amendment: Property Right deleted from the list of Fundamental Rights |
| C. | 54th Amendment: Voting age reduced from 21 to 18 |
| D. | 80th Amendment: Alternative scheme of desolation |
| Answer» E. | |
| 2000. |
The first Amendment to the Constitution (1951) made changes in relation to which of the following provisions? 1. Special provisions for advancement of socially and educationally backward classes. 2. Validation of certain Acts and Regulations specified in the Ninth Schedule. 3. Saving of certain laws giving effect to certain Directive Principles 4. Saving of laws providing for acquisition of estates Select the correct answer using the codes given below: |
| A. | 1, 2 and 3 |
| B. | 1, 2 and 4 |
| C. | 2, 3 and 4 |
| D. | 1, 3 and 4 |
| Answer» C. 2, 3 and 4 | |