Explore topic-wise MCQs in Advanced Biotech.

This section includes 197 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Advanced Biotech knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

51.

Plant breeders have an advantage over animal breeders in reproducing a desired type offspring because the plant breeders can employ

A. Gene mutations
B. Hybridization
C. Clonal propagation
D. Selection
Answer» D. Selection
52.

Match the following marker genes in group 1 with suitable selecting agent in group 2

A. P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3
B. P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1
C. P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
D. P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2
Answer» E.
53.

Gynogenesis is a process of development of haploid plants

A. from a fertilized cell of female gametophyte
B. from an unfertilized cell of female gametophyte
C. from isolated pollen grains
D. by selective elimination of chromosomes following distant hybridization
Answer» C. from isolated pollen grains
54.

Oils rich in PUFA are NOT desirable for bio-diesel production because

A. they form epoxides in presence of oxygen
B. they do not form epoxides in presence of oxygen
C. they have high ignition temperature
D. they solidify at low temperature
Answer» B. they do not form epoxides in presence of oxygen
55.

Plant secondary metabolites

A. help to increase the growth rate of plant
B. help in plant reproduction processes
C. provide defense mechanisms against microbial attack
D. make the plant susceptible to unfavorable conditions
Answer» D. make the plant susceptible to unfavorable conditions
56.

For amplificatio of GC rich sequences by polymerase chain reacstion, identify the reagent that binds and stabilizes AT sequences and destabilizes GC regions.

A. Tetramethyl ammonium chloride
B. Betaine
C. 7-deaza-2 -deoxyguanosine triphosphate
D. Sodium dodecyl sulphate
Answer» C. 7-deaza-2 -deoxyguanosine triphosphate
57.

Protein binding regions of DNA are identified by one of the following techniques

A. finger printing
B. foot printing
C. southern blotting
D. western blotting
Answer» C. southern blotting
58.

To promote attachment and spreading of anchorage-dependent animal cells, the surface of the culture vessel needs to be coated with

A. trypsin
B. collagen
C. pronase
D. polyglycol
Answer» C. pronase
59.

When present in tissue culture medium, gibberellin

A. helps to break dormancy of buds and bulbs
B. promotes dormancy development in buds and bulbs
C. is regarded as plant growth inhibitor
D. prevents normal recognition of auxin molecule
Answer» B. promotes dormancy development in buds and bulbs
60.

A thermostable DNA polymerase that can carry out both reverse transcription reaction and polymerizations has been isolated from

A. Thermococcus litoralis
B. Thermus aquaticus
C. Thermotoga maritima
D. Thermus thermophilus
Answer» E.
61.

Meristems escape virus invasion because

A. vascular system is absent in the meristem
B. of low metabolic activity in the meristem
C. the virus inactivating system has low activity in the meristem
D. of low endogenous auxin level
Answer» B. of low metabolic activity in the meristem
62.

If Con A sepharose column was used for the purification of enzyme, then separation would be based on

A. molecular exclusion
B. affinity binding
C. ion exchange
D. hydrophobic interaction
Answer» C. ion exchange
63.

What techniques would you recommend for confirming the molecular weight of the purified enzyme?

A. P, Q
B. Q, S
C. R, S
D. P, S
Answer» C. R, S
64.

Which of the following would result in somaclonal variation in micropropagated plants?

A. P, Q
B. Q, R
C. P, S
D. Q, S
Answer» C. P, S
65.

The mobility of DNA in agarose gel electrophoresis is solely based on its

A. charge
B. conformation
C. size
D. none of these
Answer» D. none of these
66.

The transplastomic plants bear no risk for gene transfer through pollens as

A. the pollens degenerate before fertilization
B. the transformed mitochondrial DNA is lost during pollen maturation
C. the transformed chloroplast DNA is lost during pollen maturation
D. the transformed genomic DNA are inherited maternally
Answer» E.
67.

Cells of meristemoid are best described as

A. differentiated and non dividing
B. dedifferentiated and dividing
C. differentiated and dividing
D. dedifferentiated and non dividing
Answer» D. dedifferentiated and non dividing
68.

Identical sized RNA transcript is detected by Northern blot analysis of UDP glucuronosyl transferase obtained from human liver and kidney. Microarray analysis of the same samples shows equal spot intensity, ohereas Western blot detects a 55 kDa strong band in liver, but a very faint band in kidney of same size. The regulation of UDP glucuronosyl transferase is

A. transcriptionally controlled
B. post-transcriptionally controlled
C. translationally controlled
D. post-translationally controlled
Answer» C. translationally controlled
69.

Though the right border (RB) and left border (LB) of T-DNA are identical, the DNA transfer is specific for the DNA left of the RB (the T-DNA), rather than for the DNA left of the LB because

A. the sequence context at the RB defines the direction of transfer
B. the sequence context at the LB defines the direction of transfer
C. the nuclear location sequence (NLS) of VirD2 protein drives the excised T-strand
D. the endonuclease activity of VirD2 protein allows nicking at RB
Answer» B. the sequence context at the LB defines the direction of transfer
70.

Somatic embryo from cotyledon explant would develop in the following sequential stages,

A. cotyledonary heart globular torpedo
B. globular torpedo heart cotyledonary
C. globular heart torpedo cotyledonary
D. cotyledonary globular heart torpedo
Answer» D. cotyledonary globular heart torpedo
71.

A linear DNA fragment is 100% labeled at one end and has 3 restriction sites for EcoRI. If it is partially digested by EcoRI so that all possible fragments are produced, how many of these fragments will be labeled and how many will not be labeled ?

A. 4 labeled; 6 unlabeled
B. 4 labeled; 4 unlabeled
C. 3 labeled; 5 unlabeled
D. 3 labeled; 3 unlabeled
Answer» D. 3 labeled; 3 unlabeled
72.

Which of the following fluorescent probes is used to monitor the progress of ampli fication in Real time PCR ?

A. SYBR green
B. Rhodamine
C. FITC
D. Cyan blue
Answer» B. Rhodamine
73.

Agrobacterium based transformation of protoplasts obtained from dicots is based on the fact that

A. These exhibit strong chromosomal structures
B. These have two cotyledons
C. These exhibit strong wound response
D. These have long tap root system
Answer» D. These have long tap root system
74.

For the sequence of ds DNA given below, identify the set of primers required to amplity this DNA by PCR

A. 5 GGTTGTA and 5 GACTCCA
B. 5 CTGAGGT and 5 CCCAACAT
C. 5 ACTCAGT and 5 ATGTTGG
D. None of these
Answer» B. 5 CTGAGGT and 5 CCCAACAT
75.

The restriction endonuclease HaeIII recognizes the sequence GG CC and the point of cleavage is given by the arrow. If you want to clone a piece of DNA in a plasmid digested by HaeIII, what will be restriction enzyme of choice ?

A. SmaI (CC GGG)
B. NotI(GC GGCCGC)
C. SalmIII (GG CC)
D. PstI (CTGCA G)
Answer» D. PstI (CTGCA G)
76.

Tobacco leaf discs are transfected with Agrobacterium tumefaciens strain containing binary vector (GUS as reporter gene) with selectable marker neo (kanamycin resistant gene) and then regenerated to plants. The plants are kanamycin resistant but leaf tissues are negative to GUS assay. The explanations are

A. The plants are transformed for both genes by GUS gene is turned off
B. The plants are transformed for only neo gene not the GUS gene
C. The plants are not transformed at all, but the development of kanamycin resistance is due to somaclonal variation
D. All of these
Answer» D. All of these
77.

The culture fluids of 1000 to 5000 colonies of hybridoma are screened for monoclonal antibody by

A. P, Q
B. Q, R
C. R, S
D. Q, S
Answer» B. Q, R
78.

Expression of hundreds of different genes in DNA microarray technology is monitored by using

A. Radioactive probe
B. Visible chromogenic probe
C. UV absorbing probe
D. Fluorescent probe
Answer» E.
79.

Which of the following types of cancer will be observed in such transformed cells ?

A. Adenoma
B. Melanoma
C. Sarcoma
D. Hepatoma
Answer» D. Hepatoma
80.

Western blot analysis of c-myc expression of such transformed cells last for

A. transiently
B. upto five generations
C. upto 10 generations
D. more than 100 generations
Answer» D. more than 100 generations
81.

The DNA smear obtained on Southern blot is due to

A. head to head concatamer of viral DNA
B. head to tail concatamer of viral DNA
C. tail to tail concatamer of viral DNA
D. random integration of viral DNA
Answer» C. tail to tail concatamer of viral DNA
82.

Expression in poor amount and in inactive form of cDNA of a euharyotic protein in Escherichia coli using its expression vector is due to

A. P, Q
B. Q, R
C. Q, S
D. P, S
Answer» E.
83.

The following are useful to introduce genes into crop plants except

A. Ti plasmid
B. Particle gun
C. breeding
D. auxin
Answer» E.
84.

For protoplast fusion to be successful in plant cells

A. fusion agents other than polyethylene glycol should be used
B. cell wall of the two strains of cells should not be damaged
C. DNA between the two cells should be compatible
D. osmolarity of the medium is not important
Answer» D. osmolarity of the medium is not important
85.

You have cut the genome of a double-stranded viral genome with a restriction endonuclease and electrophoresed the products on an agarose gel. You observe only one band on the gel, equivalent to the size of the genome. This is because

A. there are no introns in the genome
B. the introns contain the recognition sites and have already been spliced out
C. all of restriction fragments are too small to detect
D. restriction endonucleases do not cut RNA, and this virus has an RNA genome
Answer» E.
86.

All of the following are true about DNA microarray technology except

A. an electron microscope is used to gather data from the arrays
B. the technology is used to assess transcription from multiple genes simultaneously
C. the technology works best for organisms whose genome is completely sequenced
D. the technology is derived from computer chip manufacture
Answer» B. the technology is used to assess transcription from multiple genes simultaneously
87.

To generate the minimum number of subclones needed for sequencing, what should be the size of the insert in these subclones ?

A. 1000 bp
B. 500 bp
C. 250 bp
D. 2000 bp
Answer» C. 250 bp
88.

Which one of the following will be the most appropriate restriction enzyme for this subcloning?

A. 8-bp cutter
B. 6-bp cutter
C. 3-bp cutter
D. 5-bp cutter
Answer» D. 5-bp cutter
89.

In order to identify the person who committed a crime, forensic experts will need to extract DNA

A. cut the DNA and hybridize with specific micro-satellite probes
B. cut the DNA and subclone the fragments
C. determine the sequence of the subclones
D. (b) followed by (c)
Answer» B. cut the DNA and subclone the fragments
90.

All of the following produced by animal cells in culture and help the cells adhere to the culture dish except

A. glycoproteins
B. collagen
C. phospholipase A
D. hyaluronic acid
Answer» D. hyaluronic acid
91.

What is the primary purpose of neomycin in creating mice with knock-outs in gene X?

A. neomycin selects for the survival of embryonic stem cells (ES) that have incorporated the mutant gene X anywhere in the genome
B. neomycin selects for the survival of ES cells that have incorporated the mutant gene in the place of the wild-type gene
C. neomycin prevents Candida infection during ES cell culture that does not have gene X
D. neomycin makes the gene X knock - out mice resistant to Candida infection
Answer» B. neomycin selects for the survival of ES cells that have incorporated the mutant gene in the place of the wild-type gene
92.

If bacterial cells are transformed with a mixture of linear and circular molecules resulting from a ligation reaction designed to produce a recombinant molecule

A. no recombinant molecule will ever be detected
B. both linear and circular molecules will replicate equally well
C. none of the plasmids will express the antibiotic resistance gene located on the plasmid
D. the circular molecules will be amplified by the cells
Answer» E.
93.

The restriction endonuclease Eco 52I recognizes the sequence C/GGCGG and cuts between the first C and the first G, indicated by the slash. DNA cut by which of the following enzymes (given with their recognition sequences and cut sites) could be cloned into a plasmid digested with Eco 52I ?

A. EcoRI (G/AATTC)
B. XmaIII (C/GGCGG)
C. SmaI (CCC/GGG)
D. SacII (CCGC/GG)
Answer» C. SmaI (CCC/GGG)
94.

In baculovirus expression vector foreign genes are expressed from the promoter of

A. Polyhedron gene
B. Bacteriophage T7 gene
C. E. coli lacZ gene
D. Yeast phosphoglycerate kinase gene
Answer» B. Bacteriophage T7 gene
95.

Plant secondary metabolites production in suspension culture is mainly targeted for

A. Obtaining metabolites in aseptic condition
B. Enhanced in vitro production of desired metabolite
C. Enhanced production of all metabolites
D. Obtaining new metabolites
Answer» C. Enhanced production of all metabolites
96.

T4 Polynucleotide kinase is used for

A. Labelling 3 ends of DNA
B. Labelling 5 ends of DNA
C. Creating blunt ends of DNA
D. Dephosphorylation of DNA
Answer» C. Creating blunt ends of DNA
97.

Cells deficient in hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyl transferase (HPRT) enzyme rely on

A. Synthesis of purine deoxynucleotides by salvage pathway
B. Synthesis of purine deoxynucleotides by de novo pathway
C. Supply of hypoxanthine in the culture medium
D. Supply of thymidine in the culture medium
Answer» C. Supply of hypoxanthine in the culture medium
98.

Enzyme used in cycle sequencing of DNA is

A. T7 DNA polymerase
B. T4 DNA polymerase
C. Klenow DNA polymerase
D. Taq DNA polymerase
Answer» E.
99.

The length of each boarder sequence in Ti -plasmid is about

A. 25 million base pairs
B. 200 kilo base pairs
C. 25 kilo base pairs
D. 25 base pairs
Answer» E.
100.

Hormone pairs required for a callus to differentiate are

A. Auxin and cytokinin
B. Auxin and gibberellin
C. Ethylene and gibberellin
D. Cytokinin and gibberellin
Answer» B. Auxin and gibberellin