MCQOPTIONS
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MCQOPTIONS
This section includes 197 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Advanced Biotech knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.
| 1. |
Which one of the following is not a requirement for a PCR reaction ? |
| A. | DNA template |
| B. | Taq polymerase |
| C. | NTPs |
| D. | MgCl |
| E. | |
| Answer» D. MgCl | |
| 2. |
To PCR amply the sequence ATCTTCTACG...............AAGCTTGCGG TAGAAGATGC...............TTCGAACGCC the required primers are |
| A. | ATCTTCTA and CGAACGCC |
| B. | ATCTTCTA and CCGCAAGC |
| C. | TAGAAGAT and CGAACGCC |
| D. | TAGAAGAT and CCGCAAGC |
| Answer» C. TAGAAGAT and CGAACGCC | |
| 3. |
In nature, Agrobacterium tumefaciens mediated infection of plant cells leads to P. crown gall disease in plants Q. hairy root disease in plants R. transfer of T-DNA into the plant chromosome S. transfer of Ri-plasmid into the plant cell |
| A. | S only |
| B. | P and R only |
| C. | Q and S only |
| D. | Q only |
| Answer» C. Q and S only | |
| 4. |
The number of clones to represent this fragment in genomic library with a probability of 95% are |
| A. | 5.9 10 |
| B. | 4.5 10 |
| C. | 3.6 10 |
| D. | 2.4 10 |
| E. | |
| Answer» E. | |
| 5. |
A complete restriction digestion of a circular plasmid (5000bp) was carried out with HindIII, BamHI and EcoRIindividually. Restriction digestion yielded following fragments. Plasmid + HindIII 1200bp and3800bp Plasmid + BamHI 5000bp Plasmid + EcoRI 2500bp The number of sites for EcoRI, BamHI-andHindIIIpresent on this plasmid are |
| A. | EcoRI-2, BamHI-1, HindIII-2 |
| B. | EcoRI-1, BamHI-1, HindIII-2 |
| C. | EcoRI-3, BamHI-2, HindIII-1 |
| D. | EcoRI-2, BamHI-2, HindIII-1 |
| Answer» B. EcoRI-1, BamHI-1, HindIII-2 | |
| 6. |
Match the herbicides in Group I with the target enzymesin Group II. Group I Group II P. Glyphosate 1. Nitrilase Q. Bromoxynil 2. Acetolactatesyn thetase R. Sulphonylureas 3. Dehalogenase S. Dalapon 4. 5-Enolpyruvylshikimate 3-phosphate synthase |
| A. | P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3 |
| B. | P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3 |
| C. | P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 |
| D. | P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1 |
| Answer» B. P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3 | |
| 7. |
Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion (a) and Reason (r). Assertion : The production of secondary metabolites in plant cell cultures is enhanced by the addition of elicitors. Reason : Elicitors induce the expression of enzymes responsibie for the biosynthesis of secondary metabolites. |
| A. | Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct reason for (A) |
| B. | Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A) |
| C. | (A) is true but (R) is false |
| D. | (A) is false but (R) is true |
| Answer» E. | |
| 8. |
A single base pair of DNA weighs 1.1 10 21 grains. How many picomoles of a plasmid vector of length 2750 bp are contained in 1 ug of purified DNA? |
| A. | 0.30 |
| B. | 0.55 |
| C. | 0.25 |
| D. | 0.91 |
| Answer» C. 0.25 | |
| 9. |
Which one of the following is NOT a protoplast fusion inducing agent? |
| A. | Inactivated Sendai virus |
| B. | Ca |
| C. | at alkaline pH |
| D. | Polyethylene glycol |
| E. | Colchicine |
| Answer» E. Colchicine | |
| 10. |
Protein-protein interactions are studied by P. DNA foot printing Q. Yeast two hybrid system R. Ligase chain reaction S. Mass spectrometry |
| A. | P and S only |
| B. | Q and S only |
| C. | P and R only |
| D. | Q and R only |
| Answer» C. P and R only | |
| 11. |
Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion (a) and the Reason (r) Assertion : Somatic embryogenesis in plants is a two step process comprising of embryo initiation followed by embryo production. Reason : Embryo initiation is independent of the presence of 2, 4 dichlorop-henoxyacetic acid whereas embryo production requires a high concentration of 2, 4-dichloroph-enoxyacetic acid. |
| A. | both (a) and (r) are true and (r) is the correct reason for (a) |
| B. | both (a) and (r) are true and (r) is not the correct reason for (a) |
| C. | (a) is true but (r) is false |
| D. | (a) is false but (r) is true |
| Answer» D. (a) is false but (r) is true | |
| 12. |
Somatic cell gene transfer is used for P. transgenic animal productionQ. transgenic diploid cell production R. in-vitro fertilization S. classical breeding of farm animals |
| A. | P, R and S |
| B. | P, Q and R |
| C. | P and R |
| D. | P only |
| Answer» C. P and R | |
| 13. |
Identify the CORRECT statements P. 5 and 3 ends of the transcripts can be mapped by utilizing polymerase chain reaction Q. S1 nuclease can cleave the DNA strand of a DNA-RNA hybrid R. T4 polynucleotide kinase is used for labeling 3 end of DNA S. Baculovirus (Autographa californica) can be used as an insect expression vector |
| A. | P and Q only |
| B. | R and S only |
| C. | P and S only |
| D. | Q and R only |
| Answer» D. Q and R only | |
| 14. |
Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Assertion : In direct somatic embry-ogenesis, embryos are developed without going through callus formation. Reason : This is possible due to the presence of pre-embryonically determined cells. |
| A. | Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct reason for (A) |
| B. | (A) is false but (R) is true |
| C. | (A) is true but (R) is false |
| D. | Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A) |
| Answer» E. | |
| 15. |
Match Group I with Group II Group I Group II P. Real Time-PCR 1. Biochips Q. 2-D Electrophoresis 2. Syber Green R. Affinity 3. Antibody linked chromatography sephrose beads S. Micoroarray 4. Ampholytes |
| A. | P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3 |
| B. | P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 |
| C. | P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1 |
| D. | P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4 |
| Answer» D. P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4 | |
| 16. |
Match the items in Group 1 with correct options in Group 2 : Group 1 Group 2 P. DNA footprinting 1. Protein-protein interaction Q. Yeast two-hybrid 2. VNTR system R. DNA fingerprinting 3. DNA binding protein S. SAGE 4. Transcriptome analysis |
| A. | P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3 |
| B. | P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4 |
| C. | P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 |
| D. | P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3 |
| Answer» C. P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 | |
| 17. |
Which of the following statements hold true for pluripotent stem cells (PSCs) under in vitro conditions? P. PSCs can be maintained in an undifferentiated state Q. PSCs exhibit abnormal and unstable karyotypes R. PSCs can differentiate into a wide variety of cell types S. PSCs cannot be passaged continuously |
| A. | P, Q |
| B. | P, R |
| C. | Q, R |
| D. | Q, S |
| Answer» C. Q, R | |
| 18. |
Match the items in Group 1 with their functions in Group 2: Group 1 P. rol genes Q. Opines R. Virulence genes S. Aux and cyt genes Group 2 1. Food and energy source 2. Tumor formation 3. Hairy root induction 4. T-DNA transfer and integration |
| A. | P-4, Q-3, R -2, S-1 |
| B. | P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1 |
| C. | P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2 |
| D. | P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2 |
| Answer» E. | |
| 19. |
Which of the following statements are true about glyphosate tolerant transgenic plants? P. Transgenic plants detoxify glyphosate. Q. Transgenic plants produce an altered enzyme that is not affected by glyphosate. R. Transgenic plants sequester glyphosate in vacuoles. S. Transgenic plants overcome the inhibition of aromatic amino acid biosynthesis. |
| A. | P, Q |
| B. | R,S |
| C. | Q,S |
| D. | P, R |
| Answer» D. P, R | |
| 20. |
Identify the correct statement for the HAT medium (P) Includes drug aminopterin to block major pathway for synthesis of deoxyri-bonucleotides (Q) Hypoxanthine is precursor for thymidine (R) Includes drug aminopterin to block major pathway for synthesis of polypeptides (S) Cells can grow in presence of aminopterin only if they have enzymes thymidine kinase and hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase |
| A. | P, Q |
| B. | P, S |
| C. | R, S |
| D. | Q, S |
| Answer» C. R, S | |
| 21. |
Match the items in groupl with the terms given in group 2 Group 1 Group 2 P. Lactobacillus and Bifidobacteria 1. Prebiotics Q. Polychlorobenzenes 2. Probiotics (PCBs) R. Fructo-oligosaccharides 3. Antibiotics S. -Lactams 4. Xenobiotics |
| A. | P- 2 , Q- 4 , R-1 , S- 3 |
| B. | P- 3 , Q- 4 , R-1 , S- 2 |
| C. | P- 4 , Q- 1 , R-2 , S- 3 |
| D. | P- 1 , Q- 3 , R-4 , S- 2 |
| Answer» B. P- 3 , Q- 4 , R-1 , S- 2 | |
| 22. |
Which of the following statements are true with respect to a special complex called dicer ? (P) It consists of deoxyribonuclease and DNA fragments (Q) It consists of ribonuclease and RNA fragments (R) It is involved in gene silencing (S) It triggers apoptosis |
| A. | P, R |
| B. | Q, R |
| C. | P, S |
| D. | Q, S |
| Answer» C. P, S | |
| 23. |
Determine the correctness or otherwise of following Assertion [a] and Reason [r] Assertion : The enzymatic degradation of cell wall to obtain single cell called protoplast has helped immensely in developing somatic cell genetics in plants Reason : In plants or animals, fusion to two cells must occur through the plasma membrane |
| A. | Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a] |
| B. | Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a] |
| C. | [a] is true but [r] is false |
| D. | [a] is false but [r] is true |
| Answer» C. [a] is true but [r] is false | |
| 24. |
Match the following marker genes in group 1 with suitable selecting agent in group 2 Group 1 Group 2 P. npt II 1. Glyphosate Q. aroA 2. Phosphinothricin R. hpt 3. Kanamycin S. bar 4. Hygromycin B |
| A. | P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3 |
| B. | P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1 |
| C. | P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 |
| D. | P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2 |
| Answer» E. | |
| 25. |
What techniques would you recommend for confirming the molecular weight of the purified enzyme? (P) Isoelectric focusing (Q) SDS-PAGE (R) Native PAGE (S) Gel filtration |
| A. | P, Q |
| B. | Q, S |
| C. | R, S |
| D. | P, S |
| Answer» C. R, S | |
| 26. |
Which of the following would result in somaclonal variation in micropropagated plants? (P) Propagation by axillary branching in the absence of plant growth regulators (Q) Cell suspension maintained for five years before induction of somatic embryogenesis (R) Cullus induction using 20 M 2, 4-Dichlo-rophenoxyacetic acid followed by shoot organogenesis (S) Shoot organogenesis from an explant in the absence of an intermediate callus phase |
| A. | P, Q |
| B. | Q, R |
| C. | P, S |
| D. | Q, S |
| Answer» C. P, S | |
| 27. |
Match items in group 1 with correct options from those given in group 2 Group 1 P. Amperometric biosensor Q. Evanescent wave biosensor R. Calorimetric biosensor S. Potentiometric biosensor Group 21. Light beam 2. Flux of redox electrons 3. Field effect transistors 4. Exothermic reaction |
| A. | P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1 |
| B. | P-2, Q-l, R-4, S-3 |
| C. | P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1 |
| D. | P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1 |
| Answer» C. P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1 | |
| 28. |
Match items in group 1 with correct options from those given in group 2Group 1 P. Tissue plasminogen activator Q. Gamman interferon R. Podophyllotoxin S. Polyhydroxyalkanoate Group 2 1. Immunomodulator 2. Biodegradable plastic 3. Clot dissolution 4. Anti-tumor agent |
| A. | P 4, Q 3, R l, S 2 |
| B. | P l, Q 3, R 4, S 2 |
| C. | P 3, Q l, R 2, S 4 |
| D. | P 3, Q l, R 4, S 2 |
| Answer» E. | |
| 29. |
How many standard -phage vectors carrying 20kb DNA fragments or YACs carrying 250 kb DNA fragments are theoretically required to constitute a complete C. elegans genomic library? |
| A. | 500 -phage vectors or 40 yeast clones |
| B. | 400 -phage vectors or 5000 yeast clones |
| C. | 5000 -phage vectors or 400 yeast clones |
| D. | 5 10 |
| E. | -phage vectors or 4000 yeast clones |
| Answer» D. 5 10 | |
| 30. |
For the sequence of ds DNA given below, identify the set of primers required to amplity this DNA by PCR 3 GACTCCA.............TACAACC 5 CTGAGGT.................ATGTTGG 3 |
| A. | 5 GGTTGTA and 5 GACTCCA |
| B. | 5 CTGAGGT and 5 CCCAACAT |
| C. | 5 ACTCAGT and 5 ATGTTGG |
| D. | None of these |
| Answer» B. 5 CTGAGGT and 5 CCCAACAT | |
| 31. |
The culture fluids of 1000 to 5000 colonies of hybridoma are screened for monoclonal antibody by P. Western blot analysis Q. Antigen capture analysis R. Northern blot analysis S. Antibody capture analysis Choose the correct pair from the following : |
| A. | P, Q |
| B. | Q, R |
| C. | R, S |
| D. | Q, S |
| Answer» B. Q, R | |
| 32. |
In order to identify the person who committed a crime, forensic experts will need to extract DNAfrom the tissue sample collected at the crime scene and conduct one of the following procedures for DNA finger-printing analysis |
| A. | cut the DNA and hybridize with specific micro-satellite probes |
| B. | cut the DNA and subclone the fragments |
| C. | determine the sequence of the subclones |
| D. | (b) followed by (c) |
| Answer» B. cut the DNA and subclone the fragments | |
| 33. |
Match the following genetic elements with their functions. Genetic elements Functions A. neoR 1. Facilitates inducible expression of genes in eukaryotes B. SV40 2. Facilitates constitutive expression of genes in eukaryotes C. LTR 3. Allows amplification of gene D. dhfr 4. Provides way of selecting eukaryotic cells, which have received foreign DNA |
| A. | A 4, B 2, C 1, D 3 |
| B. | A 2, B 4, C 1, D 3 |
| C. | A 1, B 4, C 2, D 3 |
| D. | A 4, B 2, C 3, D 1 |
| Answer» B. A 2, B 4, C 1, D 3 | |
| 34. |
Expression in poor amount and in inactive form of cDNA of a euharyotic protein in Escherichia coli using its expression vector is due to (P) the absence of capping mechanism of mRNA (Q) codon bias (R) absence of polyadenylation (S) absence of proper glycosylation |
| A. | P, Q |
| B. | Q, R |
| C. | Q, S |
| D. | P, S |
| Answer» E. | |
| 35. |
What are the experimental steps needed for screening an expression library for a clone encoding a protein X that has been isolated and purified ? (P) m-RNA isolation (Q) Antibody preparation (R) Cloning into an appropriate vector (S) Western blotting on transferred plaques |
| A. | P, S |
| B. | Q, S |
| C. | Q, R |
| D. | R, S |
| Answer» C. Q, R | |
| 36. |
Identify the natural plant growth regulators from the following list. (P) Zeatin (Q) Benzylaminopurine (BAP) (R) Indole-3-acetic acid (IAA) (S) 2, 4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid |
| A. | P, Q |
| B. | Q, S |
| C. | P, R |
| D. | R, S |
| Answer» D. R, S | |
| 37. |
A RNA polymerization assay was performed using 3H UTP as the labelled nucleotide with a specific activity of 500 Ci/ mol (1 Ci = 2.2 106 counts per min). After 10 min incubation, the trichloroacetic acid-insoluble radioactivity was found to be 692521 counts per min as determined in a liquid scintillation counter working at 60% efficiency for 3H. The amount of UTP incorporated into the RNA will be |
| A. | 15 nmol |
| B. | 105 nmol |
| C. | 150 nmol |
| D. | 50 nmol |
| E. | None of the above |
| Answer» F. | |
| 38. |
Match the products in Group 1 with their possible applications in Group 2: Group 1 Group 2 P. Erythropoietin 1. Blood clot Q. Anti-fibrin 99 2. Binding and transport of iron R. Collagenase 3. Anaemia S. Transferrin 4. Animal cell separation |
| A. | P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2 |
| B. | P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 |
| C. | P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4 |
| D. | P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3 |
| Answer» C. P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4 | |
| 39. |
Match the items in Group I with Group II Group I (Vectors) Group II (Maximum DNA packaging)P. phage 1. 35 45 kb Q. Bacterial Artificial Chromosomes (BACs) 2. 100 300 kb R. P1 derived Artificial Chromosomes (PACs) 3. 300 kb S. cosmid 4. 5 25 kb |
| A. | P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 |
| B. | P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4 |
| C. | P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 |
| D. | P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4 |
| Answer» D. P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4 | |
| 40. |
Consider the following statements, I. T4 DNA ligase can catalyze blunt end ligation more efficiently than E.coli DNA ligase II. The ligation efficiency of T4 DNA ligase can be increased with PEG and ficoll. |
| A. | only I is true |
| B. | both I and II are true |
| C. | only II is true |
| D. | I is true and II is false |
| Answer» C. only II is true | |
| 41. |
Match the promoters listed in Group I with the tissues listed in Group II Group I Group II P. Amylase 1. Endosperm Q. Glutenin 2. Tuber R. Phaseollin 3. Aleurone S. Patatin 4. Cotyledon |
| A. | P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2 |
| B. | P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 |
| C. | P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3 |
| D. | P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4 |
| Answer» B. P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 | |
| 42. |
Match Group I with Group II Group I Group II P. Fibronectin 1. Uptake of amino acids and glucose Q. Insulin 2. Trypsin inhibitor R. -Macroglobulin 3. Binds iron S. Transferrin 4. Cell attachment to substratum |
| A. | P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3 |
| B. | P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4 |
| C. | P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3 |
| D. | P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3 |
| Answer» E. | |
| 43. |
Hairy roots induced in vitro by the infection of Agrobacterium rhizogenes, are characterized by P. a high degree of lateral branching Q. genetic instability of culture R. an absence of geotropism S. poor biomass production |
| A. | P and R only |
| B. | P and Q only |
| C. | Q and R only |
| D. | R and S only |
| Answer» B. P and Q only | |
| 44. |
Plasmid DNA (0.5 g) containing an ampicillin resistance marker was added to 200 l of competent cells. The transformed competent cells were diluted 10,000 times, out of which 50 l was plated on agar plates containing ampicillin. A total of 35 colonies were obtained. The transformation efficiency is _____ 106 cfu. g 1. |
| A. | 0.6 |
| B. | 1.4 |
| C. | 2.8 |
| D. | 4.8 |
| Answer» D. 4.8 | |
| 45. |
Assuming random distribution of nucleotides, the average number of fragments generated upon digestion of a circular DNA of size 4.3 10 5 bp with AluI(5 -AG CT-3 ) is ______ 10 3. |
| A. | 1.48 to 1.58 |
| B. | 1.68 to 1.7 |
| C. | 5.68 to 6.721 |
| D. | All of the above |
| Answer» C. 5.68 to 6.721 | |
| 46. |
Choose the appropriate pair of primers to amplify the following DNA fragment by the polymerase chain reaction (PCR). 5 gacctgtgg------------------atacggGat 3 3 ctggacacc-------------------tatgcccta 5 Primers P. 5 gacctgtgg 3 Q. 5 ccacaggtc 3 R. 5 tagggcata 3 S. 5 atcccgtat 3 |
| A. | P and R |
| B. | P and S |
| C. | Q and R |
| D. | Q and S |
| Answer» C. Q and R | |
| 47. |
A variety of genetic elements are used in the transgenic plant research. Match the genetic elements (Column-I) with their corresponding source (Column-II).Column-I P. Ubiquitin1 promoter Q. Nos transcriptional terminator R. bar selection marker gene S. gus reporter gene Column-II 1. Agrobacterium tumefaciens 2. Streptomyces hygroscopicus 3. Escherichia coli 4. Zea mays |
| A. | P-2 , Q-1 , R-3 , S-4 |
| B. | P-2 , Q-3 , R-4 , S-1 |
| C. | P-3 , Q-4 , R-1 , S-2 |
| D. | P-4 , Q-1 , R-2 , S-3 |
| Answer» E. | |
| 48. |
Match the secondary metabolites (Column-I) with the corresponding plant species (Column-II).Column-I Column-II P. Morphine 1. Datura stramonium Q. Pyrethrins 2. Catharanthus roseus R. Scopolamine 3. Papaver somniferum S. Vincristine 4. Tagetes erecta |
| A. | P-4 , Q-3 , R-1 , S-2 |
| B. | P-3 , Q-4 , R-1 , S-2 |
| C. | P-2 , Q-3 , R-4 , S-1 |
| D. | P-4 , Q-1 , R-2 , S-3 |
| Answer» C. P-2 , Q-3 , R-4 , S-1 | |
| 49. |
cDNA made from the mRNA of an organism was used to make a cDNA library in a vector that allows the expression as a fusion with a reporter tag. What percentage of the cDNA clones is likely to give rise to correct gene products ? |
| A. | 10% |
| B. | 30% |
| C. | 50% |
| D. | 100% |
| Answer» D. 100% | |
| 50. |
Which one of the following options related to the following statement is incorrect? In comparison to physical/chemical methods of clean up, bioremediation methods |
| A. | Use relatively simple techniques |
| B. | Generally end up with hazardous waste material |
| C. | Are relatively slow |
| D. | Are unobtrusive and non-disruptive |
| Answer» C. Are relatively slow | |