MCQOPTIONS
Saved Bookmarks
This section includes 197 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Advanced Biotech knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.
| 151. |
How many molecules of amplicons will be present in 0.1 l of reaction? |
| A. | 102.4 |
| B. | 1024 |
| C. | 51.2 |
| D. | 512 |
| Answer» D. 512 | |
| 152. |
Expressed Sequence Tag is defined as |
| A. | a partial sequence of a codon randomly selected from DNA library |
| B. | the characteristic gene expressed in the cell |
| C. | the protein coding DNA sequence of a gene |
| D. | uncharacterized fragment for DNA presence in the cell |
| Answer» B. the characteristic gene expressed in the cell | |
| 153. |
Somatic cell gene transfer is used for |
| A. | P, R and S |
| B. | P, Q and R |
| C. | P and R |
| D. | P only |
| Answer» C. P and R | |
| 154. |
An example for template independent DNA polymerase is |
| A. | DNA Polymerase I |
| B. | RNA polymerase |
| C. | Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase |
| D. | DNA polymerase III |
| Answer» D. DNA polymerase III | |
| 155. |
Match the items in Group 1 with correct options in Group 2 : |
| A. | P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3 |
| B. | P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4 |
| C. | P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 |
| D. | P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3 |
| Answer» C. P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 | |
| 156. |
Antibiotic resistance marker that CANNOT be used in a cloning vector in Gram negative bacteria is |
| A. | Streptomycin |
| B. | Ampicillin |
| C. | Vancomycin |
| D. | Kanamycin |
| Answer» D. Kanamycin | |
| 157. |
HAT (hypoxanthine, aminopterin and thymidine) is used for selecting the hybridomas based on the following I. Only hybridoma will grow since it inherited the HGPRT genes from B-cells and can synthesize DNA from hypoxanthine. II. Myeloma cells will not grow in cultures since de novo synthesis is blocked by aminopterin and due to the lack of HGPRT enzyme. |
| A. | only I is true |
| B. | only II is true |
| C. | both I and II are true |
| D. | I is true and II is false |
| Answer» D. I is true and II is false | |
| 158. |
Identify the CORRECT statements |
| A. | P and Q only |
| B. | R and S only |
| C. | P and S only |
| D. | Q and R only |
| Answer» D. Q and R only | |
| 159. |
Match the promoters listed in Group I with the tissues listed in Group II |
| A. | P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2 |
| B. | P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 |
| C. | P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3 |
| D. | P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4 |
| Answer» B. P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 | |
| 160. |
A mutant G protein with increased GTPase activity would |
| A. | not bind to GTP |
| B. | not bind to GDP |
| C. | show increased signaling |
| D. | show decreased signaling |
| Answer» E. | |
| 161. |
Match the items in Group I with Group II |
| A. | P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 |
| B. | P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4 |
| C. | P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 |
| D. | P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4 |
| Answer» D. P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4 | |
| 162. |
Consider the following statements, |
| A. | only I is true |
| B. | both I and II are true |
| C. | only II is true |
| D. | I is true and II is false |
| Answer» C. only II is true | |
| 163. |
Match the items in Group 1 with their functions in Group 2: |
| A. | P-4, Q-3, R -2, S-1 |
| B. | P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1 |
| C. | P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2 |
| D. | P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2 |
| Answer» E. | |
| 164. |
Baculovirus expression system is used to express heterologous genes in |
| A. | Mammals |
| B. | Plants |
| C. | Insects |
| D. | Yeasts |
| Answer» D. Yeasts | |
| 165. |
Restriction endonucleases from two different organisms that recognize the same DNA sequence for cleavage are called |
| A. | Isoschizomers |
| B. | Isozymes |
| C. | Concatamers |
| D. | Palindromes |
| Answer» B. Isozymes | |
| 166. |
To produce plants that are homozygous for all traits, the best choice is |
| A. | Protoplast culture |
| B. | Cell suspension culture |
| C. | Anther and pollen culture |
| D. | Apical merisem culture |
| Answer» D. Apical merisem culture | |
| 167. |
Match Group I with Group II |
| A. | P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3 |
| B. | P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 |
| C. | P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1 |
| D. | P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4 |
| Answer» D. P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4 | |
| 168. |
Which of the following statements hold true for pluripotent stem cells (PSCs) under in vitro conditions? |
| A. | P, Q |
| B. | P, R |
| C. | Q, R |
| D. | Q, S |
| Answer» C. Q, R | |
| 169. |
Which of the following statements are true about glyphosate tolerant transgenic plants? |
| A. | P, Q |
| B. | R,S |
| C. | Q,S |
| D. | P, R |
| Answer» D. P, R | |
| 170. |
Virus resistant transgenic plants can be developed by the expression of |
| A. | Cowpea trypsin inhibitor |
| B. | Crystalline toxin protein |
| C. | Defective movement protein |
| D. | Snowdrop lectin |
| Answer» D. Snowdrop lectin | |
| 171. |
The product commercially produced by animal cell culture is |
| A. | insulin |
| B. | tissue plasminogen activator |
| C. | interferon |
| D. | hepatitis B vaccine |
| Answer» C. interferon | |
| 172. |
Yeast artificial chromosomes (YAC s) are used for cloning |
| A. | large segments of DNA |
| B. | mRNA |
| C. | bacterial DNA |
| D. | yeast DNA |
| Answer» B. mRNA | |
| 173. |
Embryonic stem cells are derived from |
| A. | fertilized embryo |
| B. | unfertilized embryo |
| C. | sperm |
| D. | kidney |
| Answer» B. unfertilized embryo | |
| 174. |
Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) |
| A. | Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct reason for (A) |
| B. | (A) is false but (R) is true |
| C. | (A) is true but (R) is false |
| D. | Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A) |
| Answer» E. | |
| 175. |
Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion (a) and Reason (r). |
| A. | Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct reason for (A) |
| B. | Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A) |
| C. | (A) is true but (R) is false |
| D. | (A) is false but (R) is true |
| Answer» E. | |
| 176. |
A single base pair of DNA weighs 1.1 10 |
| A. | 0.30 |
| B. | 0.55 |
| C. | 0.25 |
| D. | 0.91 |
| Answer» C. 0.25 | |
| 177. |
A complete restriction digestion of a circular plasmid (5000bp) was carried out with HindIII, BamHI and EcoRIindividually. Restriction digestion yielded following fragments. |
| A. | EcoRI-2, BamHI-1, HindIII-2 |
| B. | EcoRI-1, BamHI-1, HindIII-2 |
| C. | EcoRI-3, BamHI-2, HindIII-1 |
| D. | EcoRI-2, BamHI-2, HindIII-1 |
| Answer» B. EcoRI-1, BamHI-1, HindIII-2 | |
| 178. |
Match the herbicides in Group I with the target enzymesin Group II. |
| A. | P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3 |
| B. | P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3 |
| C. | P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 |
| D. | P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1 |
| Answer» B. P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3 | |
| 179. |
In DNA sequencing reactions using the chain termination method, the ratio of ddNTPs to dNTPs should be |
| A. | 0 |
| B. | < 1 |
| C. | 1 |
| D. | > 1 |
| Answer» C. 1 | |
| 180. |
Which one of the following features is NOT required in a prokaryotic expression vector ? |
| A. | oriC |
| B. | Selection marker |
| C. | CMV promoter |
| D. | Ribosome binding site |
| Answer» D. Ribosome binding site | |
| 181. |
A variety of genetic elements are used in the transgenic plant research. Match the genetic elements (Column-I) with their corresponding source (Column-II). |
| A. | P-2 , Q-1 , R-3 , S-4 |
| B. | P-2 , Q-3 , R-4 , S-1 |
| C. | P-3 , Q-4 , R-1 , S-2 |
| D. | P-4 , Q-1 , R-2 , S-3 |
| Answer» E. | |
| 182. |
Assuming random distribution of nucleotides, the average number of fragments generated upon digestion of a circular DNA of size 4.3 10 |
| A. | 1.48 to 1.58 |
| B. | 1.68 to 1.7 |
| C. | 5.68 to 6.721 |
| D. | All of the above |
| Answer» C. 5.68 to 6.721 | |
| 183. |
Choose the appropriate pair of primers to amplify the following DNA fragment by the polymerase chain reaction (PCR). |
| A. | P and R |
| B. | P and S |
| C. | Q and R |
| D. | Q and S |
| Answer» C. Q and R | |
| 184. |
Which one of the following is a second generation genetically engineered crop ? |
| A. | Bt brinjal |
| B. | Roundup soyabean |
| C. | Golden rice |
| D. | Bt rice |
| Answer» D. Bt rice | |
| 185. |
In nature, Agrobacterium tumefaciens mediated infection of plant cells leads to |
| A. | S only |
| B. | P and R only |
| C. | Q and S only |
| D. | Q only |
| Answer» C. Q and S only | |
| 186. |
In nature, the horizontal gene transfer across bacteria is mediated by |
| A. | gene cloning followed by transformation |
| B. | conjugation and transformation |
| C. | conjugation only |
| D. | transformation only |
| Answer» C. conjugation only | |
| 187. |
Human genome sequencing project involved the construction of genomic library in |
| A. | bacterial artificial chromosome |
| B. | pBR322 |
| C. | bacteriophage |
| D. | pcDNA3.1 |
| Answer» B. pBR322 | |
| 188. |
The length of the minimum unique stretch of DNA sequence that can be found only once in a 3 billion base pairs long genome is |
| A. | 14 |
| B. | 15 |
| C. | 16 |
| D. | 18 |
| Answer» D. 18 | |
| 189. |
The pungency of mustard seeds is primarily due to secondary metabolites such as isothiocyanate and nitrile. The pungency is usually felt only when the seeds are crushed. This is because of |
| A. | the coat of the intact seeds blocks the pungent volatiles from being released |
| B. | the pungent chemicals are stored as inactive conjugates and compartmentalized from the enzymes that convert them into active chemicals |
| C. | the pungent chemicals are formed only after the reaction with atmospheric oxygen |
| D. | the pungent chemicals are formed only after the reaction with atmospheric carbondioxide |
| Answer» C. the pungent chemicals are formed only after the reaction with atmospheric oxygen | |
| 190. |
Match the secondary metabolites (Column-I) with the corresponding plant species (Column-II). |
| A. | P-4 , Q-3 , R-1 , S-2 |
| B. | P-3 , Q-4 , R-1 , S-2 |
| C. | P-2 , Q-3 , R-4 , S-1 |
| D. | P-4 , Q-1 , R-2 , S-3 |
| Answer» C. P-2 , Q-3 , R-4 , S-1 | |
| 191. |
The growth medium for mammalian cells contains serum. One of the major functions of serum is to stimulate cell growth and attachment. However, it must be filter sterilized to |
| A. | remove large proteins |
| B. | remove collagen only |
| C. | remove mycoplasma and microorganisms |
| D. | remove foaming agents |
| Answer» D. remove foaming agents | |
| 192. |
The statistical frequency of the occurrence of a particular restriction enzyme cleavage site that is 6 bases long can be estimated to be |
| A. | once every 24 bases |
| B. | once every 256 bases |
| C. | once every 1024 bases |
| D. | once every 4096 bases |
| Answer» E. | |
| 193. |
Plasmid DNA (0.5 g) containing an ampicillin resistance marker was added to 200 l of competent cells. The transformed competent cells were diluted 10,000 times, out of which 50 l was plated on agar plates containing ampicillin. A total of 35 colonies were obtained. The transformation efficiency is _____ 10 |
| A. | 0.6 |
| B. | 1.4 |
| C. | 2.8 |
| D. | 4.8 |
| Answer» D. 4.8 | |
| 194. |
Select the CORRECT combination of genetic components that are essential for the transfer of TDNA segment from Agrobacterium tumefaciens to plant cells. |
| A. | Border repeat sequences and oncogenes |
| B. | Border repeat sequences and vir genes |
| C. | Opine biosynthetic genes and vir genes |
| D. | Opine biosynthetic genes and oncogenes |
| Answer» C. Opine biosynthetic genes and vir genes | |
| 195. |
Which one of the following is NOT used for the measurement of cell viability in animal cell culture ? |
| A. | Trypan blue dye exclusion |
| B. | Tetrazolium (MTT) assay |
| C. | LDH activity in the culture medium |
| D. | Coulter counter |
| Answer» E. | |
| 196. |
Which one of the following is NOT a therapeutic agent based on nucleic acid for the treatment of genetic disorders ? |
| A. | Antisense oligonucleotide |
| B. | Ribozyme |
| C. | Aptamer |
| D. | Avidin |
| Answer» E. | |
| 197. |
Commonly used reporter gene in plant expression vectors is |
| A. | Ti gene of Agrobacterium tumifaciens |
| B. | GUS gene |
| C. | -lactamase gene |
| D. | - amylase gene |
| Answer» C. -lactamase gene | |