Explore topic-wise MCQs in UPSC IAS Exam.

This section includes 2618 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your UPSC IAS Exam knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

301.

Consider the following statements about the functions of municipal planning committees and choose the correct code: 1. Preparation of plans for economic development and social justice 2. Implementation of schemes for economic development and social justice, as may be entrusted to them

A. Only 1 is true.
B. Only 2 is true.
C. 1 and 2 both are true.
D. 1 and 2 both are false.
Answer» D. 1 and 2 both are false.
302.

Consider the statements on Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act (PESA) and choose the code with the correct ones. 1. The PESA empowers the Gram Sab has and the Gram Panchayats to take charge of village administration. 2. It empowers them to protect community resources. 3. It authorizes them to control social sector functionaries. 4. It allows them to own minor forest produce.

A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 2 and 3
C. Only 3 and 4
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer» E.
303.

9. Limitations on authority of the State Legislature EXCLUDES:

A. Parliament's authority to make laws on subjects in the State List during an Emergency
B. Parliament's authority to make laws on state subjects if Rajya Sabha passes a reso-lution
C. Governor's discretionary power to dissolve the legislature
D. Governors power to reserve bills for consideration of the President
Answer» D. Governors power to reserve bills for consideration of the President
304.

Consider the following statements and choose the correct code: 1. The President cannot return any bill passed by Parliament. 2. The President has to give assent to a money bill.

A. Only 1 is true.
B. Only 2 is true.
C. 1 and 2 both are true.
D. 1 and 2 both are false.
Answer» D. 1 and 2 both are false.
305.

Which one of the following devices calls the attention of minister towards a matter of public importance?

A. Half-an-hour discussion
B. Calling attention notice
C. Short duration discussion
D. Adjournment motion
Answer» C. Short duration discussion
306.

Consider the following statements with regard to the Indian type of federal polity: 1. There is a singular citizenship in India. 2. There is a singular polity in India. 3. The residuary powers have been vested in the President. 4. The Council of States is organized through elected representatives of the States' Assemblies on the basis of population Select the correct code:

A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1, 3, 4
C. 1, 2, 4
D. 2, 3, 5
Answer» C. 1, 2, 4
307.

Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts provides a special status to the Union Territory of Delhi and redesignated it the National Capital Territory of Delhi?

A. 59th Amendment Act
B. 62nd Amendment Act
C. 67th Amendment Act
D. 69th Amendment Act
Answer» E.
308.

____ can be declared by the President on his own? 1. Emergency due to armed rebellion 2. Financial Emergency 3. President's Rule in a State Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 3 only
C. All of the Above
D. None of the Above
Answer» E.
309.

Article 371 of the Constitution of India provides for special provisions with respect to which of the following states?

A. Andhra Pradesh
B. Assam
C. Nagaland
D. Maharashtra and Gujarat
Answer» E.
310.

Who, among the following, had dreamt of India as an "India in which the poorest shall feel that it is their country in whose making they have an effective voice"?

A. Jawaharlal Nehru
B. B. R. Ambedkar
C. Mahatma Gandhi
D. Rajendra Prasad
Answer» D. Rajendra Prasad
311.

Which one of the following statements is correct? The power of judicial review means the power of the Supreme Court to:

A. Set aside any executive decision if it is against statutory law.
B. Set aside any provision of law if it is contrary to die Fundamental Rights.
C. Examine constitutional validity of any administrative action as well as legislative provision and strike it down if not found in accordance with the constitutional provisions.
D. Review its own decisions or decisions of any court or tribunal within the territory of India.
Answer» D. Review its own decisions or decisions of any court or tribunal within the territory of India.
312.

Which of the following condition may lead to the resignation of the government: 1. Defeat of an ordinary bill introduced by a minister. 2. Defeat of a money bill.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both
D. None
Answer» D. None
313.

Consider the following statements: 1. No discussion can take place in the Legislature of a State with respect to the conduct of any Judge of the Supreme Court as per the provisions of Constitution of India. 2. There is no restriction on the discussion to take place in the Legislature of a State with respect to the conduct of any Judge of the State's High Court as per provisions of the Constitution of India. 3. Courts cannot enquire into any proceedings of the Legislatures as per the provisions of the Constitution of India. Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer» D. 1, 2 and 3
314.

Who among the following determines the authority who shall readjust the allocation of seats in the Lok Sabha to the states and division of each State into territorial constituencies?

A. The President of India
B. The Parliament of India
C. The Chief Election Commissioner of India
D. The Lok Sabha alone
Answer» C. The Chief Election Commissioner of India
315.

What is the correct chronological order in which the following States of the Indian Union were created or granted full statehood? 1. Andhra Pradesh                         2. Nagaland 3. Maharashtra                            4. Haryana Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1-3-4-2
B. 3-1-2-4
C. 1-3-2-4
D. 3-1-4-2
Answer» D. 3-1-4-2
316.

Consider the following statements relating to the procedure of the election of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha 1.   The election of a Speaker shall be held on such date as the Prime Minister may fix and the Secretary General shall send to every member, notice of this date. 2.   The election of a Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix and the Secretary General shall send to every member notice of this date. 3.   At anytime before noon on the day preceding the date a fixed, any member may give notice in writing of a mooai that another member be chosen as the Deputy Speaker sf the House. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

A. 2 and 3
B. Only 2
C. 1 and 3
D. All of these
Answer» E.
317.

Who among the following have held the office of the Vice-President of India? 1. Mohammad Hidayatullah 2. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed 3. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy 4. Shankar Dayal Sharma Select the correct answer using the code given below: Codes:

A. 1, 2, 3 and 4
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 3 and 4 only
Answer» C. 2 and 3 only
318.

Which one of the following is a unique feature of India?s parliamentary system?

A. Members of real executive are members of the legislature.
B. Ministers work under the leadership of the Prime Minister.
C. President is part of the Indian legislature.
D. All the ministers are collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
Answer» D. All the ministers are collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
319.

Which of the following is not true with regard to the President's powers? Choose the correct code. 1. The President can make regulations for the peace, progress and good government of Andaman and Nicobar, Lakshdweep, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, and Daman and Diu. 2. Such regulations have to receive the approval of the Union Parliament. 3. Such regulations may even cause amendment in any Act of the Parliament.

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer» C. 2 and 3
320.

Which of the following items has been added to the Concurrent List?

A. Social Planning
B. Protection of wild animals and birds
C. Social security
D. Electricity
Answer» C. Social security
321.

Parliament does not have the power to remove:

A. Comptroller and Auditor General
B. Supreme Court Judges
C. Chairman of UPSC
D. High Court Judges
Answer» D. High Court Judges
322.

35. The Governor may recommend the imposition of the President?s rule in the state

A. on the recommendation of the State Legislature
B. on the recommendation of the President
C. on the recommendation of the Chief Minister
D. if he is convinced thai the Government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution of India
Answer» E.
323.

The salaries, allowances and other service conditions of the SPSC members are determined by the:

A. Governor
B. Chief Minister
C. Chairman, SPSC
D. State Legislature
Answer» B. Chief Minister
324.

Parliamentary system implies:1.  President's office is an elected office and that he is a real head.2. Prime Minister is appointed by the constitutional head.3. Ministers may or may not belong to the Parliament.Select the correct code:

A. Only 1 is true.
B. Only 2 is true.
C. 1 and 3 are true.
D. Only 3 is true.
Answer» C. 1 and 3 are true.
325.

The Balkanisation plan for India was proposed by:

A. Wavell
B. Mountbatten
C. Cripps
D. Linlithgow
Answer» C. Cripps
326.

Consider the following statements with regard to the Parliamentary system in India.1. India's real executive i.e. a body of ministers rules but does not reign.2. India's head of the State i.e. the President reigns but rules when called upon to preserve and protect the Constitution.3.  India's real executive is collectively responsible to the Parliament. Select the code with the correct statements.

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1, 3
C. 1, 2
D. 2, 3
Answer» D. 2, 3
327.

If the Prime Minister of India belonged to the Upper House of Parliament:

A. he will not be able to vote in his favour in the event of a no-confidence motion
B. he will not be able to speak on the budget in the Lower House
C. he can make statements only in the Upper House
D. he was to become a member of the Lower House within six months after being sworn in
Answer» B. he will not be able to speak on the budget in the Lower House
328.

Which one of the following is a Quasi-judicial authority?

A. Central Vigilance Commission
B. National Commission for Women
C. Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
D. Administrative Tribunal
Answer» E.
329.

36. Consider the following statements :       [IAS Prelims 2015] 1. The Legislative Council of a State in India can be larger in size than half of the Legislative Assembly of that particular State 2. The Governor of a State nominates the Chairman of Legislative Council of that particular State, Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer» E.
330.

The office of the 'Whip' is mentioned in:

A. Constitution of India.
B. Rules of the house.
C. In a separate Parliamentary Statute.
D. None
Answer» E.
331.

Through which of the Supreme Court decision has the Preamble of the Constitution been declared as part of the Constitution?

A. Berubari case (1960)
B. Minerva Mills case (1980)
C. Kesavananda Bharati case (1973)
D. Woman Rao V Union of India Case (1981)
Answer» D. Woman Rao V Union of India Case (1981)
332.

Consider the following statements with regard to an outstanding feature of the Indian constitution which specifies parliamentary government with the elected President at the head. 1. The Indian Constitution adopts a Parliamentary system of responsible government. 2. The President, as the executive chief, acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers 3. The President can be impeached only on the decision of the Supreme Court. 4. The Parliament alone can impeach the President. Select the code which gives the correct statements.

A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1, 2, 4
C. 1, 3, 4
D. 2, 3, 4
Answer» C. 1, 3, 4
333.

When did the Punchhi Commission submit its report?

A. 2009
B. 2010
C. 2011
D. 2012
Answer» C. 2011
334.

Article 141 of the Constitution lays down that the law declared by Supreme Court shall be binding on all courts within the territory of India. Therefore, the Supreme Court:

A. Is bound by its earlier decisions as the expression "all courts" include Supreme Court also.
B. Is not bound by its own decisions and may reverse a previous decision.
C. Can reverse a previous decision only when a new legislation is enacted having the effect of abrogating decision.
D. Can reverse a previous decision only when that previous decision was given as a result of overlooking another previous decision.
Answer» C. Can reverse a previous decision only when a new legislation is enacted having the effect of abrogating decision.
335.

In which of the following states has a development board been established?

A. Arunachal Pradesh
B. Sikkim
C. Goa
D. Karnataka-Hyderabad region
Answer» E.
336.

Consider the following statements: 1. The Governor cannot function without the State Council of Ministers. 2. A person who is not a member of the State Legislature cannot be appointed as a minister. 3. The State Council of Ministers can function for sometime even after death or resignation of the Chief Minister. 4. In the absence of the Chief Minister, only the Home Minister can preside over emergency meetings of the State Council of Ministers. Which of these is / are correct?

A. Only 1
B. 3 and 4
C. 1, 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer» B. 3 and 4
337.

With reference to Union Government consider of following statements: 1. The ministries/Departments of the government of India are created by the PM on the advice of the cabinet secretary 2. Each of the ministries is assigned to a minister by the president of India on the advice of the PM.             Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer» C. Both 1 and 2
338.

When did the Jammu and Kashmir Constitution come into force?

A. 26 January, 1950
B. 26 January, 1951
C. 26 January, 1956
D. 26 January, 1957
Answer» E.
339.

Which one of the following is a district of the region of the Rayalseema State of Andhra Pradesh?

A. Anantapur
B. Prakasam
C. Vizianagaram
D. Vishakapatnam
Answer» B. Prakasam
340.

Who has the power to make laws on the concurrent subjects?

A. Union Legislature
B. States Legislatures
C. Both the Union and the State Legislature
D. None of the above
Answer» D. None of the above
341.

A Joint Public Service Commission for two or more States can be established by:

A. The concerned States
B. An Act of Parliament
C. The Union Public Service Commission
D. The Government of India
Answer» C. The Union Public Service Commission
342.

One of the following is a Union List item:

A. Population Control and Family Planning
B. Markets and Fairs
C. Capitation Taxes
D. Corporation Tax
Answer» E.
343.

What is the motion required for the removal of the Prime Minister? Select the correct code. 1. Adjournment motion 2. No-confidence motion

A. Only 1 is true.
B. Only 2 is true.
C. 1 and 2 both are true.
D. 1 and 2 both are false.
Answer» C. 1 and 2 both are true.
344.

How does the President use his veto?

A. When the does not give assent to the bill
B. When he refuses to sign the bill
C. When he withholds his assent to the bill
D. None of the above
Answer» D. None of the above
345.

Which of the following is not true with regard to the conditions of services of the State Election Commissioner? Choose from the codes provided. 1. He is appointed by Governor and his service conditions should be determined by Governor. 2. He is removed on the grounds prescribed for the removal of a High Court Judge.

A. Only 1 is true.
B. Only 2 is true.
C. 1 and 2 both are true.
D. 1 and 2 both are false.
Answer» D. 1 and 2 both are false.
346.

With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements : 1. The Ministries/Departments of the Government of India are created by the Prime Minister on the advice of the Cabinet Secretary. 2. Each of the Ministries is assigned to a Minister by the President of India on the advice of the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer» C. Both 1 and 2
347.

Consider the following statements about the West Bengal Memorandum and choose the correct code: 1. All-India Services be abolished 2. Articles relating to Presidents rule be repealed

A. 1 is true but 2 is false,
B. 2 is true but 1 is false.
C. 1 and 2 both are true.
D. 1 and 2 both are false.
Answer» D. 1 and 2 both are false.
348.

Which one of the following issues com under the Concurrent list?

A. Taxes on Professions, trades, callings and employments
B. Capitation Taxes
C. Adulteration of foodstuffs and other goods
D. Corporation Tax
Answer» D. Corporation Tax
349.

Which Article of the Constitution of India deals with administrative tribunals?

A. Article 322
B. Article 323
C. Article 323-A
D. Article 323-B
Answer» D. Article 323-B
350.

9. Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State? 1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President's rule 2. Appointing the Ministers 3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India 4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer» C. 2, 3 and 4 only