MCQOPTIONS
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MCQOPTIONS
This section includes 2618 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your UPSC IAS Exam knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.
| 351. |
Consider the following statements : 1. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business. 2. All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? |
| A. | 1 only |
| B. | 2 only |
| C. | Both 1 and 2 |
| D. | Neither 1 nor 2 |
| Answer» B. 2 only | |
| 352. |
The Comptroller and Auditor General is appointed by the president. He can be removed |
| A. | by the president |
| B. | on an address from both Houses of Parliament |
| C. | on the recommendation of the president by the supreme court |
| D. | by CJI |
| Answer» C. on the recommendation of the president by the supreme court | |
| 353. |
The power of the President of India to declare that Article 370 (under which the state of J & K enjoys a special' status) shall cease to be operative, is subject to: 1. Public notification 2. Recommendation of Parliament 3. Advice of the Union Council of Ministers 4. Recommendation of the Constituent Assembly of J & K Of these statements: |
| A. | 1 and 3 are correct |
| B. | 1 and 2 are correct |
| C. | 2 and 4 are correct |
| D. | 1 and 4 are correct |
| Answer» E. | |
| 354. |
4. \[{{R}_{1}}\]: The legislative Council is inferior to legislative Assembly \[{{R}_{2}}\]: The very existence of the Council depends on the will of the Assembly. \[{{R}_{2}}\]: A bill originating in the Council can be put to an end by the Assembly rejecting it. \[{{R}_{3}}\]of the Council's members are nominated by flue Governor. 1. \[{{A}_{1}}\] and\[{{R}_{1}}\],\[{{R}_{2}}\] and \[{{R}_{3}}\] are correct and\[{{R}_{1}}\],\[{{R}_{2}}\] and \[{{R}_{3}}\]explain A 2. A, \[{{R}_{1}}\]and\[{{R}_{3}}\] are correct and\[{{R}_{1}}\] and \[{{R}_{3}}\]explain A 3. A, \[{{R}_{1}}\], \[{{R}_{2}}\] and \[{{R}_{3}}\] are correct but only \[{{R}_{1}}\] and \[{{R}_{2}}\]explain A 4. A and\[{{R}_{2}}\] are wrong; \[{{R}_{1}}\] and \[{{R}_{2}}\]are correct. Which of the following statements is/are correct? |
| A. | 1 only |
| B. | 2 and 3 |
| C. | 1 and 4 |
| D. | 2, 3 and 4 |
| Answer» B. 2 and 3 | |
| 355. |
Which one of the following is not included in the State List in the Constitution of India? |
| A. | Police |
| B. | Law and Order |
| C. | Prisons |
| D. | Criminal Procedure Code |
| Answer» E. | |
| 356. |
Appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in appeals from High Courts in regard to civil matters pertains only to a: |
| A. | Substantial question of law |
| B. | Question of law |
| C. | Question of fact |
| D. | Mixed question of fact and law |
| Answer» B. Question of law | |
| 357. |
Which one of the following is not true with regard to the tenure of the Governor |
| A. | Governors tenure is of five years. |
| B. | His tenure begins from the day he enters his office till the end of five years. |
| C. | He need not continue to holds office beyond five years. |
| D. | None of the above |
| Answer» D. None of the above | |
| 358. |
Consider the following statements and choose the correct code: 1. The Governor can entrust the officials of the Union Government any function related to State Government. 2. The President can entrust the officials of the State Government any function related to the Union Government'. |
| A. | 1 is true but 2 is false, |
| B. | 2 is true but 1 is false. |
| C. | 1 and 2 both are true. |
| D. | 1 and 2 both are false. |
| Answer» D. 1 and 2 both are false. | |
| 359. |
Which one of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides that 'It shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance'? |
| A. | Article 215 |
| B. | Article 275 |
| C. | Article 325 |
| D. | Article 355 |
| Answer» E. | |
| 360. |
27. As per the Constitution of India, what is the limit prescribed for the number of members in the Legislative Assembly of a State? |
| A. | 350 members |
| B. | 400 members |
| C. | 450 members |
| D. | 500 members |
| Answer» E. | |
| 361. |
How many members of a district council are nominated by the Governor of the State? |
| A. | 2 members |
| B. | 4 members |
| C. | 5 members |
| D. | 7 members |
| Answer» C. 5 members | |
| 362. |
The Autonomous District Council, under the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution, is not operative in which one of the following states of North-East India? |
| A. | Assam |
| B. | Tripura |
| C. | Nagaland |
| D. | Meghalaya |
| Answer» D. Meghalaya | |
| 363. |
Which schedule of the Constitution of India deals with the administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes? |
| A. | Fourth Schedule |
| B. | Fifth Schedule |
| C. | Sixth Schedule |
| D. | Seventh Schedule |
| Answer» C. Sixth Schedule | |
| 364. |
Which/Who of the following can appoint a commission to examine and report on any matter relating to the administration of the autonomous districts or regions? |
| A. | Legislative Assembly of the State |
| B. | Governor of the State |
| C. | President of India |
| D. | Parliament of India |
| Answer» C. President of India | |
| 365. |
Which Article of the Constitution of India envisages a special system of administration for scheduled areas and tribal areas? |
| A. | Article 242 |
| B. | Article 244 |
| C. | Article 246 |
| D. | Article 248 |
| Answer» C. Article 246 | |
| 366. |
As per the sixth schedule to the Constitution of India, the rules for the first Constitution of District and Regional Councils are prepared by: |
| A. | The Ministry of Home, Government of India |
| B. | The Chief Minister in consultation with existing tribal councils or other representative tribal organisations of the region |
| C. | The Governor in consultation with existing tribal councils or other representative tribal organisations of the region |
| D. | The State Legislature |
| Answer» D. The State Legislature | |
| 367. |
What is the maximum number of members in a Tribes Advisory Council? |
| A. | 20 members |
| B. | 25 members |
| C. | 28 members |
| D. | 34 members |
| Answer» B. 25 members | |
| 368. |
Who/Which of the following is empowered to direct that a law of Parliament does not apply to a scheduled area? |
| A. | President of India |
| B. | Supreme Court of India |
| C. | High Court of the State |
| D. | Governor of the State |
| Answer» E. | |
| 369. |
Sixth Schedule to the Constitution of India makes special administrative provisions in regard to the tribal areas in: |
| A. | Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram |
| B. | Meghalaya, Assam, Nagaland and Manipur |
| C. | Tripura, Manipur, Mizoram and Meghalaya |
| D. | Arunanchal Pradesh, Nagaland, Assam and Tripura |
| Answer» B. Meghalaya, Assam, Nagaland and Manipur | |
| 370. |
Who/Which of the following is empowered to declare an area to be a scheduled area? |
| A. | Governor of the State |
| B. | Legislative Assembly of the State |
| C. | Parliament of India |
| D. | President of India |
| Answer» E. | |
| 371. |
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below: List - I provisions in the constitution of IndiaList - II (source)A.Emergency provisions1.IrelandB.Fundamental rights2.The united KingdomC.Parliamentary system3.The united states of AmericaD.Directive principles of state policy4.GermanyCodes: |
| A. | A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3 |
| B. | A-2 B-3 C-4 D-1 |
| C. | A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1 |
| D. | A-2 B-1 C-4 D-3 |
| Answer» D. A-2 B-1 C-4 D-3 | |
| 372. |
The Second Schedule of the Constitution of India does not contain the provisions as to who among the following? |
| A. | The President |
| B. | The Speaker of the House of People |
| C. | The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India |
| D. | The Chairman, Union Public Service Commission |
| Answer» E. | |
| 373. |
Consider the following statements: The Indian Constitution is: 1. An unwritten constitution. 2. A written constitution. 3. Largely based on the Government of India Act, 1935. 4. A gift of British Parliament Of these statements: |
| A. | 2 and 4 are correct |
| B. | 2 and 3 are correct |
| C. | 1 and 4 are correct |
| D. | 1 and 3 are correct |
| Answer» C. 1 and 4 are correct | |
| 374. |
Which one of the following is not a salient feature of the Constitution of India? |
| A. | Written Constitution and supremacy of the Constitution |
| B. | Quasi-federal structure |
| C. | Committed Judiciary |
| D. | Distribution of Powers |
| Answer» D. Distribution of Powers | |
| 375. |
Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India incorporates salaries and al- low acnes of members of Parliament, the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, and Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha, as one of the items ? |
| A. | Fifth Schedule |
| B. | Seventh Schedule |
| C. | Ninth Schedule |
| D. | Tenth Schedule |
| Answer» C. Ninth Schedule | |
| 376. |
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:List - I (subject)List - II (part of constitution of India)A.Finance, property contracts and suits1.Part VB.The union judiciary2.Part XIIC.The Executive of states3.Part XID. Relations between the union and the states4.Part VICodes: |
| A. | A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1 |
| B. | A-2 B-1 C-4 D-3 |
| C. | A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3 |
| D. | A-2 B-3 C-4 D-1 |
| Answer» C. A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3 | |
| 377. |
Consider the following statements related to secularism in India: 1. It entails strict separation of religion from politics. 2. It bans parties with religious affiliations from contesting elections. 3. It grants religious liberty to all communities. 4. It accepts community personal laws. Which of the statements given above are correct? |
| A. | 3 and 4 |
| B. | 1 and 2 |
| C. | 1, 3 and 4 |
| D. | 1, 2, 3 and 4 |
| Answer» D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 | |
| 378. |
Consider the following statements: The salient features of the Indian Constitution provide for: 1. Single citizenship for the whole of India. 2. Strictly federal form of government. 3. Unique blend of rigidity and flexibility of the above statements: |
| A. | 1, 2 and 3 are correct |
| B. | 1 and 2 are correct |
| C. | 2 and 3 are correct |
| D. | 1 and 3 are correct |
| Answer» E. | |
| 379. |
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India? |
| A. | It contains the languages recognised in the Constitution. |
| B. | It contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas. |
| C. | It lists distribution of powers between the Union and the States. |
| D. | It deals with the salaries and emoluments of the constitutional functionaries. |
| Answer» D. It deals with the salaries and emoluments of the constitutional functionaries. | |
| 380. |
Assertion (A): Not contented with merely laying down the fundamental principles of governance the framers of the Indian Constitution followed the Government of India Act 1919 in providing matters of administrative details. Reason (R): The framers of the Indian Constitution had the apprehension that in the prevailing conditions of the country at that time the Constitution might be subverted unless the form of administration was also included. |
| A. | Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A |
| B. | Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A |
| C. | A is true but R is false |
| D. | A is false but R is true |
| Answer» E. | |
| 381. |
Consider the following statements with reference to Secularism in India: 1. Secularism means that the State has n recognised religion of State. 2. Secularism means that the State treats all the religions equally. 3. Secularism means that the State regulates the relation of man with God. Which of these statements are correct? |
| A. | 1, 2 and 3 |
| B. | 1 and 2 |
| C. | 2 and 3 |
| D. | 1 and 3 |
| Answer» C. 2 and 3 | |
| 382. |
Which of the following statements about the Constitution of India is/are correct? 1. Popular sovereignty and adult franchise are the basic features of the Constitution. 2. The Constitution, in so far as the division of powers between the Centre and the States is concerned, is rigid. 3. The Constitution recognises the interdependence of civil and economic rights. 4. The Constitution mentions direct control by the people such as referendum, initiative and recall. Select the correct answer from the codes given below: |
| A. | Only 1 |
| B. | 1, 2 and 4 |
| C. | 2, 3 and 4 |
| D. | 1, 2 and 3 |
| Answer» E. | |
| 383. |
No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against which one of the following m any court during the term of his office? |
| A. | President, Vice-President and Governor |
| B. | President, Prime Minister and Governor |
| C. | President and Governor only |
| D. | President, Vice-President and Prime Minister |
| Answer» D. President, Vice-President and Prime Minister | |
| 384. |
Assertion (A): Article 300 of the Constitution of India has specifically removed the distinction between sovereign and non-sovereign functions with respect to government's liability for tort in India. Reason (R): Government is liable for tort which is the result of its non-sovereign function. Codes: |
| A. | Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A |
| B. | Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A |
| C. | A is true but R is false |
| D. | A is false but R is true |
| Answer» E. | |
| 385. |
Which part of the Constitution of India deals with the rights and liabilities of the Government? |
| A. | Part XII |
| B. | Part XI |
| C. | Part IX |
| D. | Part XIII |
| Answer» B. Part XI | |
| 386. |
Article 361 of the Constitution of India guarantees the privilege to the President of India that he shall: |
| A. | Not participate in Parliamentary proceedings |
| B. | Only be answerable to the Chief Justice of India |
| C. | Address both the Houses of Parliament at the time of joint session |
| D. | Not be answerable to any court for the exercise of the powers of his office |
| Answer» E. | |
| 387. |
Which one of the following was affirmed by the Supreme Court, with respect to the sovereign immunity of the State? |
| A. | Doctrine of sovereign immunity has relevance in the present day context. |
| B. | State can succeed in pleading its immunity by showing that the tort was committed by its servants in the course of discharge of statutory functions. |
| C. | State cannot claim sovereign immunity if its officers are negligent in exercise of their powers. |
| D. | State can claim sovereign immunity even if its officers are negligent in exercise of their powers. |
| Answer» D. State can claim sovereign immunity even if its officers are negligent in exercise of their powers. | |
| 388. |
Which of the following Amendments made a provision for the creation of All-India Judicial Service? |
| A. | 44th Amendment |
| B. | 38th Amendment |
| C. | 57th Amendment |
| D. | 42nd Amendment |
| Answer» E. | |
| 389. |
The Article in the Constitution of India that says that the Parliament may by law, provide for the creation of an All India Service is: |
| A. | Article 300 |
| B. | Article 312 |
| C. | Article 320 |
| D. | Article 420 |
| Answer» C. Article 320 | |
| 390. |
Which of the following services under the Government of India are termed as All-India Services? |
| A. | IAS, IPS and Indian Foreign Service |
| B. | IAS only |
| C. | IAS and IPS only |
| D. | IAS, IPS and Indian Forest Service |
| Answer» E. | |
| 391. |
Assertion (A): Recruitment to the public services is to be regulated by the Acts of appropriate legislatures. Reason (R): The Constitution does not have provisions to regulate the recruitment of the civil servants. Codes: |
| A. | Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A. |
| B. | Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A. |
| C. | A is true but R is false. |
| D. | A is false but R is true. |
| Answer» B. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A. | |
| 392. |
A new All-India service can be created by |
| A. | An amendment of the Constitution |
| B. | An executive order |
| C. | A resolution under Article 312 of the Constitution |
| D. | A statute |
| Answer» E. | |
| 393. |
In the context of All-India Service, which one of the following finds mention in Article 312 of the Constitution of India? |
| A. | All-India Service of Engineers |
| B. | All-India Revenue Service |
| C. | All-India Judicial Service |
| D. | All-India Medical and Health Service |
| Answer» D. All-India Medical and Health Service | |
| 394. |
Witch one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India provides that every person who is a member of a defence service or of civil service of the Union or of All-India Services holds the office during the pleasure of the President of India? |
| A. | Article 310 |
| B. | Article 315 |
| C. | Article 323 |
| D. | Article 323A |
| Answer» B. Article 315 | |
| 395. |
The Articles in the Indian Constitution that are grouped under Services under the Union and the States are: |
| A. | Articles 310 to 323 |
| B. | Articles 308 to 323 |
| C. | Articles 306 to 323 |
| D. | Articles 305 to 323 |
| Answer» C. Articles 306 to 323 | |
| 396. |
Statement I: There is a feeling that the institution of All India Services needs reconsideration. Statement II: Members of the All India Services foster national integration, as they are recruited from different parts of the country. Codes: |
| A. | Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I. |
| B. | Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I. |
| C. | Statement I is true but Statement II is false. |
| D. | Statement I is false but Statement II is true. |
| Answer» C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false. | |
| 397. |
Consider the following statements: 1. The Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act, 1976, provides the right of the government servant to make a representation against the penalty proposed to be imposed on him. 2. The right of the Government of India to dismiss a government servant at its pleasure cannot be fettered by any contract. Which of the statements given above is / are correct? |
| A. | Only 1 |
| B. | Only 2 |
| C. | Both 1 and 2 |
| D. | Neither 1 nor 2 |
| Answer» E. | |
| 398. |
In pursuance of which Article of the Constitution of India are the conditions of service including recruitment to the Central Services regulated by a large number of rules? |
| A. | Article 309 |
| B. | Article 310 |
| C. | Article 311 |
| D. | Article 312 |
| Answer» B. Article 310 | |
| 399. |
Assertion (A): The Rajya Sabha under Article 312 is empowered to create new All India Services in the national interest. Reason (R): The Rajya Sabha can define national interest better. Codes: |
| A. | Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A |
| B. | Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A |
| C. | A is true but R is false |
| D. | A is false but R is true |
| Answer» E. | |
| 400. |
Consider the following statements: 1. A new all-India service can be created if both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha declare by a resolution supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest to do so. 2. There is no provision in the Constitution of India as to what level of authority can dismiss a member of a civil service of the Union or an all-India service or a civil service of a State. Which of the statements given above is / are correct? |
| A. | Only 1 |
| B. | Only 2 |
| C. | Both 1 and 2 |
| D. | Neither 1 nor 2 |
| Answer» E. | |