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This section includes 2618 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your UPSC IAS Exam knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.
| 1901. |
Which Article of the Constitution of India deals with the rights of citizenship of certain persons of Indian origin residing outside India? |
| A. | Article 7 |
| B. | Article 10 |
| C. | Article 8 |
| D. | Article 9 |
| Answer» D. Article 9 | |
| 1902. |
Which one of the following true about the basic structures doctrine? |
| A. | It implies a set of systematic principles. |
| B. | It explains the procedure of the three readings during the passage of an ordinary bill. |
| C. | It states specifically about the composition of legislatures in the country. |
| D. | It provides for a High Court in every state. |
| Answer» B. It explains the procedure of the three readings during the passage of an ordinary bill. | |
| 1903. |
The provision of Article 368 of the Constitution of India deals with: |
| A. | Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution |
| B. | Procedure for amendment of the constitution to be followed by Parliament |
| C. | Power as well as procedure for amendment of the Constitution |
| D. | Passing and ratification of amendment Bills by State Legislatures |
| Answer» D. Passing and ratification of amendment Bills by State Legislatures | |
| 1904. |
What is extradition? |
| A. | Delivering a national of another country for the trial of offences |
| B. | To block the trade of other countries with a particular country |
| C. | Forcing a person to leave the country of which he is a citizen |
| D. | To force foreign national to leave the country |
| Answer» B. To block the trade of other countries with a particular country | |
| 1905. |
Consider the following statements about Niti Aayog and choose the correct code: 1. The role of the Government in Niti Aayog is that of an enabler rather than a provider 2. India not to involve in global commons |
| A. | Only 1 is true. |
| B. | Only 2 is true. |
| C. | 1 and 2 both are true. |
| D. | 1 and 2 both are false. |
| Answer» B. Only 2 is true. | |
| 1906. |
Consider the following statements: An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by the:1. LokSabha 2. Rajya Sabha3. State Legislature 4. PresidentWhich of the above statements is/are correct? |
| A. | Only 1 |
| B. | 1, 2 and 3 |
| C. | 2, 3 and 4 |
| D. | 1 and 2 |
| Answer» C. 2, 3 and 4 | |
| 1907. |
The citizenship means 1. full civil and political rights of the citizens. 2. the right of suffrage for election to the House of the People (of the Union) and the Legislative Assembly of every state. 3. the right to become a Member of the Parliament and Member of Legislative Assemblies. Which of the following statements) is/are not correct for the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India? |
| A. | 1 and 2 |
| B. | 1 and 3 |
| C. | 2 and 3 |
| D. | All of these |
| Answer» E. | |
| 1908. |
Who among the following can only be removed from the office in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court?1. Comptroller and Auditor-General of India2. Chief Election Commissioner3. Chairman, Union Public Service Commission4. Attorney General for IndiaSelect the correct answer using the codes given below: |
| A. | 1, 2, 3 and 4 |
| B. | 1, 2 and 4 only |
| C. | 1 and 2 only |
| D. | 2 and 3 only |
| Answer» D. 2 and 3 only | |
| 1909. |
Who determines the salary and service conditions of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India? |
| A. | It is specified in the Second Schedule |
| B. | It is specified by Parliament |
| C. | As specified by the Parliament and until it does so, by the second schedule |
| D. | None of the above |
| Answer» D. None of the above | |
| 1910. |
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? 1. 24th Amendment: Asserted the right of the Parliament to amend any part of the Constitution including Part III 2. 39th Amendment: Election of President, Vice President, Prime Minister and Speaker is beyond the purview of the Judiciary 3. 42nd Amendment: Political defections made illegal and reservations for SC/ST extended for another 10 years 4. 7th Amendment: Granting of statehood to the Union Territory of Delhi |
| A. | 1 and 4 |
| B. | 1 and 2 |
| C. | 2 and 3 |
| D. | 3 and 4 |
| Answer» C. 2 and 3 | |
| 1911. |
The provisions in Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to [IAS Prelims 2015] |
| A. | protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes |
| B. | determine the boundaries between States |
| C. | determine the powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats |
| D. | protect the interests of all the border States |
| Answer» B. determine the boundaries between States | |
| 1912. |
The majority of the provisions of the Indian Constitution can be amended: |
| A. | by the State Legislature alone |
| B. | the Parliament alone |
| C. | with the joint approval of the Parliament and State Legislatures |
| D. | only on ratification of half the States |
| Answer» C. with the joint approval of the Parliament and State Legislatures | |
| 1913. |
What facts emerges from the Preamble? 1. When the Constitution was enacted 2. Ideals that were to be achieved. 3. System of government 4. Source of authority Which of the following statements is/are correct? |
| A. | 2, 3 and 4 |
| B. | 1 and 2 |
| C. | 1, 2 and 3 |
| D. | 1, 2, 3 and 4 |
| Answer» E. | |
| 1914. |
The Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956 |
| A. | Giving effect to the recommendations of the State Reorganisation Commission |
| B. | Two fold classification of States and Union Territories |
| C. | [a] and [b] |
| D. | Act 92A was added to the Union List of Seventh Schedule |
| Answer» D. Act 92A was added to the Union List of Seventh Schedule | |
| 1915. |
What is the implication of the Union Government giving 'Special Status' to a State? |
| A. | Subsequently large percentage of the Central assistance will be grants-in-aid |
| B. | Current account budgetary deficit will be bridged by the Union Government |
| C. | The extent of loan as a percentage of total assistance will be high |
| D. | The Union Government meets entire expenditure of the State during the period of 'Special Status' |
| Answer» B. Current account budgetary deficit will be bridged by the Union Government | |
| 1916. |
Which one of the following cases prompted the Parliament to enact 24th Constitutional Amendment Act? |
| A. | Golaknath case |
| B. | Shankari Prasad case |
| C. | Kesavananda Bharati case |
| D. | Minerva Mills case |
| Answer» B. Shankari Prasad case | |
| 1917. |
Consider the following statements with regard to the Advocate General of a State: 1. He holds office during the pleasure of the President of India. 2. He can take part in the proceedings of the State Legislative Assembly. 3. His salary is paid from the Consolidated Fund of India. 4. He advises the State Government on legal matters. Which of these is/are correct? |
| A. | 2 and 4 |
| B. | Only 3 |
| C. | Only 1 |
| D. | 1, 2, 3 and 4 |
| Answer» B. Only 3 | |
| 1918. |
Which of the following Committees/Reports recommended for the establishment of the Central Bureau of Investigation? |
| A. | Santhanam Committee |
| B. | Administrative Reforms Commission |
| C. | PH. Appleby Report |
| D. | A.D. Gorwala Report |
| Answer» B. Administrative Reforms Commission | |
| 1919. |
Which of the following is true with regard to the National Backward Classes Commission: |
| A. | It examines requests for inclusion of any class of citizens as a backward class. |
| B. | Its jurisdiction does not include hearing complaints of over-inclusion or under-inclusion of any backward class. |
| C. | Its recommendations are not binding on the Central Government. |
| D. | It does not act as a complaint-redressal authority. |
| Answer» B. Its jurisdiction does not include hearing complaints of over-inclusion or under-inclusion of any backward class. | |
| 1920. |
Which of the following formed a part of the terms of reference of the Punchhi Commission on Centre-State Relations constituted by the Government of India? 1. Panchayati Raj institutions 2. Communal violence 3. An integrated domestic market 4. Central Law Enforcement Agency Select the correct answer using the codes given below: |
| A. | 1 and 4 only |
| B. | 2 and 3 only |
| C. | 1, 2 and 3 only |
| D. | 1, 2, 3 and 4 |
| Answer» E. | |
| 1921. |
Who determines the number of the members of the UPSC? |
| A. | Parliament |
| B. | Home Minister |
| C. | President |
| D. | Prime Minister |
| Answer» D. Prime Minister | |
| 1922. |
Which the following is true with regard to the powers of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes? Choose the correct code. 1. The Commission can summon and enforce attendance of any person and examine on oath. 2. It may require the recovery and production of any document 3. It may receive any evidence orally on an oath |
| A. | 1 only |
| B. | 1 and 2 |
| C. | 1 and 3 |
| D. | 1, 2, 3 |
| Answer» C. 1 and 3 | |
| 1923. |
What is the composition of the Central Information Commission? |
| A. | The Central Information Commission has one chairman and not more than 10 members. |
| B. | It has one chairman and five other members. |
| C. | It is a single-official body. |
| D. | None of the above |
| Answer» B. It has one chairman and five other members. | |
| 1924. |
The concept of 'basic structures' has been defined in one of the following decision of the Supreme Court. Which one is it? |
| A. | Kesavananda Bharati -1973 |
| B. | Minerva Mills - 1980 |
| C. | Woman Rao v. Union of India - 1981 |
| D. | Nagraj v. Union of India - 2007 |
| Answer» E. | |
| 1925. |
The Indian constitution is divided into |
| A. | 16 chapters |
| B. | 22 chapters |
| C. | 24 chapters |
| D. | 25 chapters |
| Answer» C. 24 chapters | |
| 1926. |
Consider the following statements: The Chief Minister as the head of the State Council of Ministers: 1. Has a free hand in the distribution of portfolios 2. Can reshuffle the Ministers and ask any Minister to resign 3. Is bound by the advice of the Ministers 4. Advises the Ministers in day-to-day administration of departments Which of the statements given above are correct? |
| A. | 1 and 2 |
| B. | 2 and 3 |
| C. | 1, 2 and 4 |
| D. | 3 and 4 |
| Answer» B. 2 and 3 | |
| 1927. |
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below: List-I (Matter) List-II (Article) A. Right to Equality 1. Article 14 B. Right to freedom 2. Article 25 C. Right to freedom of religion 3. Article 32 D. Right to constitutions remedies 4. Article 19 5. Article 13 Codes: |
| A. | A-1 B-3 C-2 D-4 |
| B. | A-2 B-4 C-5 D-3 |
| C. | A-1 B-4 C-2 D-3 |
| D. | A-2 B-3 C-5 D-4 |
| Answer» D. A-2 B-3 C-5 D-4 | |
| 1928. |
86th Amendment to the Constitution of India has: |
| A. | Made free and compulsory primary education a fundamental right |
| B. | Incorporated provision of right to inheritance in the Directive Principles of State Policy |
| C. | Enhanced the scope of reservation for backward communities in educational institutions |
| D. | Brought minority educational institutions under strict control of the Central Government |
| Answer» B. Incorporated provision of right to inheritance in the Directive Principles of State Policy | |
| 1929. |
In which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India is the principle of collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers enshrined? |
| A. | Article 75 |
| B. | Article 74 |
| C. | Article 77 |
| D. | Article 78 |
| Answer» B. Article 74 | |
| 1930. |
Which of the following statements regarding the Comptroller and Auditor General of India is / are true?1. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India:2. Can be considered by the joint session of both Houses of Parliament3. Includes examination of income and expenditure of all public sector undertakings4. Is placed before the Lok Sabha with the comments of the Estimates Committee Constitutes the basis for scrutiny by the Public Accounts Committee of the ParliamentSelect the correct answer using the codes given below: |
| A. | 1 and 2 |
| B. | 1 and 3 |
| C. | 2 and 4 |
| D. | Only 4 |
| Answer» D. Only 4 | |
| 1931. |
By whom are the ex-officio members nominated on the Niti Aayog? |
| A. | The President |
| B. | The Chief Justice of India |
| C. | The Prime Minister |
| D. | The Speaker of the Lok Sabha |
| Answer» D. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha | |
| 1932. |
Match list I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below: List-I (Article related to co- operative societies) List-II (matter dealt with) A. Article 243-ZI 1. Right of member to get information B. Article 243-ZO 2. Incorporation of co-operative societies C. Article 243-ZR 3. Supersession and suspension of board D. Article 243-ZL 4. Election of members of Board 5. Application of multi-state co-operative societies Codes: |
| A. | A-1 B-4 C-3 D-2 |
| B. | A-2 B-5 C-1 D-4 |
| C. | A-2 B-1 C-5 D-3 |
| D. | A-1 B-5 C-3 D-2 |
| Answer» D. A-1 B-5 C-3 D-2 | |
| 1933. |
A Constitutional amendment shall also be ratified by legislatures of not less than one-half of the States by a resolution if it is meant to make any change in: |
| A. | Fundamental Rights |
| B. | Directive Principles |
| C. | Fundamental Duties |
| D. | High Court Provisions |
| Answer» E. | |
| 1934. |
Which one of the following is the correct statement? A resolution passed by the Council of States under Article 249 empowering Parliament to legislate on State subjects in national interest remains in force for a period: |
| A. | Not exceeding six months |
| B. | Not exceeding two years |
| C. | Not exceeding one year |
| D. | Of unlimited time |
| Answer» D. Of unlimited time | |
| 1935. |
Article 359 of the Constitution of India deals with which one of the following? |
| A. | Declaration of financial emergency |
| B. | Promulgation of President's rule in a State |
| C. | Suspension of the enforcement of fundamental rights except a few during emergency |
| D. | Terms and conditions of service of Members of the Union Public Service Commission |
| Answer» D. Terms and conditions of service of Members of the Union Public Service Commission | |
| 1936. |
Exercise - 2 Indian Constitution establishes a secular state meaning that: 1. State treats all religions equally 2. Freedom of faith and worship 3. Educational bodies can impart religious instructions 4. State does not discriminate on the basis of religion Which of the following statements is/are correct? |
| A. | 1 and 2 |
| B. | 1, 2 and 3 |
| C. | 2, 3 and 4 |
| D. | 1, 2 and 4 |
| Answer» E. | |
| 1937. |
Consider the following powers / functions: 1. Appointing ministers and allocating portfolios to them 2. Presiding over the meetings of the Cabinet 3. Resolving conflicts between ministers 4. Communicating with the Governor The powers / functions of the Chief Minister of a State include: |
| A. | 2, 3 and 4 |
| B. | 1 and 4 |
| C. | 1, 2 and 3 |
| D. | 1, 2, 3 and 4 |
| Answer» B. 1 and 4 | |
| 1938. |
Consider the following statements: 1. The Parliament can make laws relating to Articles 2 and 3 which may affect the First and Fourth Schedules. 2. The above stated changes are not to be considered "amendments" for purposes of Article 368. Select the correct code |
| A. | 1 is true but 2 is false. |
| B. | 2 is true but 1 is false. |
| C. | 1 and 2, both are true. |
| D. | 1 and 2, both are false. |
| Answer» D. 1 and 2, both are false. | |
| 1939. |
Match List I wish List II List I List II Amendment State A Thirteenth 1 Sikkim B Fourteenth 2 Dadra and Nagar Haveli C Thirty-Sixth 3 Nagaland D Tenth 4 Tripura |
| A. | A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2 |
| B. | A-3 B-1 C-2 D-4 |
| C. | A-3 B-4 C-2 D-1 |
| D. | A-1 B-3 C-4 D-2 |
| Answer» B. A-3 B-1 C-2 D-4 | |
| 1940. |
Who appoints the members of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes? |
| A. | The President |
| B. | The Speaker of the Lok Sabha |
| C. | The Prime Minister |
| D. | The Chief Justice of India |
| Answer» B. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha | |
| 1941. |
The 99th Amendment Act, 2014 introduced a six-member body to recommend the appointments and transfers of judges in the higher judiciary. The six members are: |
| A. | Chief Justice of India as ex-officio, two senior most judges of the Supreme Court, Law/Justice minister, two eminent persons |
| B. | Chief Justice of India, any two other judges of the Supreme Court, Law/Justice minister, two persons nominated by the Prime Minister |
| C. | All the six members appointed by the President |
| D. | All the six members appointed by the President on the recommendation of the Prime Minister |
| Answer» B. Chief Justice of India, any two other judges of the Supreme Court, Law/Justice minister, two persons nominated by the Prime Minister | |
| 1942. |
Select the correct answer using the codes given below 1. It was inserted by the first amendment in 1951. 2. It includes those laws which are beyond the purview of judicial review. 3. It was inserted by the 42nd Amendment. 4. The laws in the Ninth Schedule are primarily those which pertain to the matters of national security. Select the correct answer using the code given below: |
| A. | 1 and 2 |
| B. | 2 and 3 |
| C. | 3 and 4 |
| D. | 3 only |
| Answer» D. 3 only | |
| 1943. |
The Government of India Act, 1919 1. Established a bicameral legislature at the centre. 2. Introduced dyarchy in the provincial executive. 3. Introduced a Federal System of Government in India. Select the correct answer using the codes given below |
| A. | 1 and 3 |
| B. | 2 and 3 |
| C. | 1, 2 and 3 |
| D. | 1 and 2 |
| Answer» E. | |
| 1944. |
Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for the setting up of the Consolidated Fund? |
| A. | Article 278 (1) |
| B. | Article 283(1) |
| C. | Article 267 (1) |
| D. | Article 301 (1) |
| Answer» D. Article 301 (1) | |
| 1945. |
Whenever the Constitution requires the 'satisfaction' of the President for the exercise of any power or function by him, it means: |
| A. | The personal satisfaction of the President |
| B. | The satisfaction of the Council of Ministers |
| C. | The satisfaction of the Members of the Parliament |
| D. | None of the above |
| Answer» C. The satisfaction of the Members of the Parliament | |
| 1946. |
The accountability or responsibility of the Prime Minister and Cabinet to the Lok Sabha is: |
| A. | Intermittent |
| B. | Indirect |
| C. | At the time of elections |
| D. | Direct, continuous and collective |
| Answer» E. | |
| 1947. |
Who is the first Law Officer of the Government of India? |
| A. | Chief Justice of India |
| B. | Union Law Minister |
| C. | Attorney General of India |
| D. | Law Secretary |
| Answer» D. Law Secretary | |
| 1948. |
Amendment of which one of the following provisions of the Constitution requires ratification by the Legislatures of the States? |
| A. | Article 157 relating to the qualifications for appointment as Governor of the State |
| B. | Article 123 relating to the powers of the President to promulgate ordinances on a subject mentioned in Concurrent List during the recess of the Parliament |
| C. | Article 56 relating to the term of the office of the President |
| D. | Article 54 relating to the election of the President |
| Answer» E. | |
| 1949. |
Which of the following statements best describe in systems of liberal democracy? |
| A. | Liberal democratic political systems only occur in highly industrialised societies. |
| B. | The same political party holds power continuously in liberal democratic regimes. |
| C. | Liberal democratic governments prevent their citizens from travelling abroad. |
| D. | Liberal democratic governments protect baste civil liberties. |
| Answer» E. | |
| 1950. |
Which one of the following is constitutionally obligatory on the part of the Chief Minister of a State? |
| A. | As the Governor is the head of the State, the Chief Minister has to take all major decisions regarding administration only after prior approval by the Governor. |
| B. | The Chief Minister has to communicate to the Governor all decisions of the cabinet relating to administration and proposals for legislation. |
| C. | As the ministers are appointed by the Governor, the Chief Minister has to go by Governor's discretion in the allocation of business among the ministers. |
| D. | The Chief Minister, if he happens to be the leader of a party not having the required majority, should prove his majority strength in the State Legislative Assembly within the period stipulated by the Governor. |
| Answer» C. As the ministers are appointed by the Governor, the Chief Minister has to go by Governor's discretion in the allocation of business among the ministers. | |