Explore topic-wise MCQs in UPSC IAS Exam.

This section includes 2618 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your UPSC IAS Exam knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1801.

Which one of the following is not a correct description of the Directive Principles of State Policy?

A.  Directive Principles are not enforceable by the courts.
B.  Directive Principles have a political sanction.
C.  Directive Principles are declaration of objectives for State Legislation.
D.  Directive Principles promise equal income and free health care for all Indians.
Answer» E.
1802.

Consider the following statements: Directive Principles of State Policy are: 1. Directives in the nature of ideals of the state 2. Directives influencing and shaping the policy of State 3. Non-justiciable rights of the citizens Which of these statements is/are correct?

A.  Only 1             
B.  2 and 3
C.  Only 3             
D.  1, 2 and 3
Answer» E.
1803.

Consider the following statements: Directive Principles of State Policy are: 1. Not amendable 2. Not enforceable by any court 3. Fundamental in the governance of the country Which of the above statements are correct?

A.  1 and 2           
B.  1 and 3
C.  2 and 3
D.  1, 2 and 3
Answer» D.  1, 2 and 3
1804.

Assertion (A): It is the legal and Constitutional duty of the State to provide legal aid to the poor. Reason (R): No one shall be denied justice by reason of his poverty.

A.  Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A                    
B.  Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C.  A is true but R is false
D.  A is false but R is true
Answer» B.  Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
1805.

 Right to work in India is a:

A.  Fundamental right                     
B.  Directive principle
C.  Constitutional right                    
D.  Constitutional duty
Answer» C.  Constitutional right                    
1806.

Which one of the following statements regarding the current status of the relationship between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles is correct?

A.  Directive Principles cannot get priority over Fundamental Rights in any case.
B.  Directive Principles always get priority over Fundamental Rights.
C.  Fundamental Rights always get priority over Directives Principles.
D.  In some cases Directive Principles may get priority over Fundamental Rights.
Answer» E.
1807.

Assertion (A): Any individual affected due to violation of any of the Directive Principles of State Policy, cannot move the court. Reason (R): The Directive Principles are not justiciable.

A.  Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
B.  Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C.  A is true but R is false
D.  A is false but R is true
Answer» B.  Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
1808.

The Directive Principles of State Policy are fundamental for the:

A.  Upliftment of backward classes          
B.  Protection of individual rights
C.  Administration of justice                
D.  Governance of state
Answer» E.
1809.

Which of the following is/are among Directive Principles of State Policy? 1. The State shall strive to promote science and technology for development. 2. The State shall endeavour to secure for citizens a Uniform Civil Code throughout India. 3. The State shall try to develop population policy and family planning programmes. 4. The State shall take steps to promote tourism. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A.  1 and 3            
B.  2 and 4
C.  2 only 
D.  1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer» D.  1, 2, 3 and 4
1810.

Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. 42nd Amendment to the Constitution of India gave primacy to Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights. 2. Minerva Mills case ruled that there has to be a balance between Part III and Part IV of the Constitution. 3. National Commission for Review of the Working of the Constitution has recommended that Directive Principles be made justiciable. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A.  1 and 2           
B.  2 and 3
C.  1 and 3           
D.  2 only
Answer» B.  2 and 3
1811.

Which part of the Constitution of India refers to the responsibility of the state towards international peace and security?

A.  Fundamental Rights                    
B.  Directive Principles of State Policy
C.  Emergency provisions                  
D.  Preamble to the Constitution
Answer» C.  Emergency provisions                  
1812.

"Directive Principles of State Policy are the conscience of the Constitution which embody the social philosophy of the Constitution" was described by:

A.  Granville Austin
B.  A.V. Dicey
C.  Dr. B.R. Ambedkar                     
D.  K.C. Where
Answer» B.  A.V. Dicey
1813.

Directive Principles of State Policy direct the State for which of the following? 1. To secure a social order for the promotion of welfare of the people 2. To separate judiciary from executive 3. To improve public health Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A.  1 and 2           
B.  2 and 3
C.  1 and 3           
D.  2 and 3
Answer» E.
1814.

Assertion (A): Secularism is a basic feature of the Constitution of India in the sense that the State should be neutral to the different religions. Reason (R): One of the Directive Principles of State Policy states that it will be a part of the duty of the state to improve the breeds of cattle and stop the slaughter of cows and calves.

A.  Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
B.  Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C.  A is true but R is false
D.  A is false but R is true
Answer» C.  A is true but R is false
1815.

The term 'equal pay for equal work' is a:

A.  Directive Principle of State Policy        
B.  Fundamental Right
C.  Fundamental Duty                     
D.  Constitutional Right
Answer» B.  Fundamental Right
1816.

Which one of the following is a correct statement?                                        

A.  Primacy is given to all the directive principles contained in Part IV of the Constitution over fundamental rights.                                                                   
B.  Primacy is given to all the fundamental rights conferred by Article 14-32 of the Constitution, over directive principles.                                                            
C.  Primacy is given to all the fundamental rights conferred by Part III of the Constitution over directive principles.                                                                 
D.  Primacy is given only to directive principles in clauses [b] and [c] of Article 39 over fundamental S rights conferred by Articles 14 and 19 of the Constitution.
Answer» E.
1817.

Which one of the following Directive Principles was not originally provided for in the Constitution of India?

A.  Citizen's right to an adequate means of livelihood
B.  Free legal aid                                                                                 
C.  Uniform civil code for the citizens
D.  Prohibition of the slaughter of cows and calves
Answer» C.  Uniform civil code for the citizens
1818.

Assertion (A): The directive principles of state policy are not enforceable by any court. Reason (R): The directive principles are more or less fundamental in the governance of the country.

A.  Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
B.  Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C.  A is true but R is false
D.  A is false but R is true
Answer» C.  A is true but R is false
1819.

Which one of the following is not the objective of the Directive Principles of State Policy?

A.  To establish a welfare state                
B.  To ensure socio-economic justice
C.  To establish a religious state              
D.  To establish a secular state
Answer» D.  To establish a secular state
1820.

Which one of the following is not a Directive Principle of State Policy?

A.  The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code.
B.  The State shall promote with special care the educational and economic interest of the weaker sections.
C.  The State shall endeavour to promote adult education to eliminate illiteracy.
D.  The State shall endeavour to protect every monument, place or object of artistic or historic interest.
Answer» D.  The State shall endeavour to protect every monument, place or object of artistic or historic interest.
1821.

Which of the following statements about a uniform civil code is/are correct? 1. It is binding on the State that a uniform civil code must be made applicable to all. 2. The provision regarding a uniform civil code is contained in Part III of the Constitution. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A.  Only 1             
B.  Only 2
C.  Both land 2                  
D.  Neither 1 nor 2
Answer» E.
1822.

With respect to the Directive Principles of State Policy, which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

A. To secure just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief - Article 42  
B. To organize village panchayats as units of self-government - Article 40
C. To secure the improvement of public health and the prohibition of intoxicating drinks and of drugs which are injurious to health - Article 47
D. To protect all monuments of historic interest and national importance - Article 50
Answer» E.
1823.

With reference to the definitions under the Constitution, consider the following statements: 1. Proclamation of emergency means a proclamation issued under Article 356. 2. Railway does not include any other line of communication wholly situated in one state and declared by the State Legislature by law not to be a railway. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.  Only 1             
B.  Only 2
C.  Both 1 and 2    
D.  Neither 1 nor 2
Answer» E.
1824.

Article 342 of the Constitution deals with the definition of:

A.  Scheduled Castes                       
B.  Scheduled Tribes
C.  Backward Classes                       
D.  Minorities
Answer» C.  Backward Classes                       
1825.

In the context of the definitions under the Constitution, the 'Federal Court' means the Federal Court constituted under the:

A.  Government of India Act, 1919        
B.  Government of India Act, 1935
C.  Indian Independence Act, 1947          
D.  Constitution of India, 1950
Answer» C.  Indian Independence Act, 1947          
1826.

Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India contains the definitions of various terms used in different provisions of the Constitution?

A.  Article 363                   
B.  Article 369
C.  Article 366       
D.  Article 362
Answer» D.  Article 362
1827.

Which of the following Amendment Acts is related to the definition of 'Ruler?

A.  26th Amendment Act                  
B.  16th Amendment Act
C.  19th Amendment Act                  
D.  24th Amendment Act
Answer» B.  16th Amendment Act
1828.

Statement I: Financial accountability of the Union Government to Parliament is ensured through the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General.Statement II: The Comptroller and Auditor General has to submit the report to the President who causes it to be laid before the Lok Sabha.Codes:

A. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
B. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Answer» B. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
1829.

Golak Nath case prompted one of the following amendments in the Constitution. Which one was it?

A. 23rd Amendment
B. 24th Amendment
C. 25th Amendment
D. 26th Amendment
Answer» C. 25th Amendment
1830.

Which of the following Amendment Act of the constitution deleted the right to property from the list of fundamental rights?

A. The Constitution (Thirty-seventh Amendment) Act, 1975
B. The Constitution (Thirty-eighth Amendment) Act, 1975
C. The Constitution (Forty-Fourth Amendment) Act, 1978
D. The Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act, 1976
Answer» D. The Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act, 1976
1831.

Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution deal with citizenship in India?

A.  Articles 333 to 337
B.  Articles 17 to 20
C.  Articles 5 to 11    
D.  Articles 1 to 4
Answer» D.  Articles 1 to 4
1832.

Who among the following was the first Law Minister of India?

A. Jawaharlal Nehru
B. Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad
C. Dr BR Ambedkar
D. T Krishnamachari
Answer» D. T Krishnamachari
1833.

Match the following List-I (Person) List-II (Role in making of the Constitution of India) a. Rajendra Prasad 1. Member Drafting Committee b. T T Krishanamachari 2. Chairman Constituent Assembly c. H C Mukherjee 3. Chairman Drafting Committee d. B R Ambedkar 4. Vice Chairman. Constituent Assembly

A. A-2       B-1       C-4       D-3 
B. A-2       B-4       C-1       D-3
C. A-3       B-4       C-1       D-2
D. A-3       B-1       C-4       D-2         
Answer» B. A-2       B-4       C-1       D-3
1834.

Which one of the following statements about Comptroller and Auditor-General of India is no correct?

A. No minister can represent him in the Parliament.
B. His salary and emoluments are chargeable on the Consolidated Fund of India.
C. He cannot disallow any expenditure which in his opinion violates the Constitution.
D. He has been debarred from holding any office of profit under the Union or State Governments after his retirement.
Answer» D. He has been debarred from holding any office of profit under the Union or State Governments after his retirement.
1835.

Simple majority in voting is enough to amend provisions relating to:

A. citizenship
B. creation and abolition of a State
C. administration of Scheduled Castes and Schedules Tribes
D. all the above
Answer» E.
1836.

"There shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advice the President who shall in the exercise of his functions act in accordance with such advice". This provision in the Constitution has been laid down by which one of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts?

A.  41th Amendment
B.  42nd Amendment
C.  43rd Amendment
D.  72nd Amendment
Answer» C.  43rd Amendment
1837.

Which one of the following has the power to initiate the amending proposals in the Indian Constitution?

A. Parliament         
B. President
C. Ruling Party       
D. Half of the state assemblies
Answer» B. President
1838.

Among the two eminent persons on the National Judicial Appointment Commission, one has to be:

A. An advocate with 10 years-experience
B. A scientist
C. A person belonging to Scheduled Caste, Scheduled Tribes, Other Backward Classes, minorities or women
D. A university professor
Answer» D. A university professor
1839.

Assertion (A): In the matters of appointment and dismissal of Ministers, the Chief Minister's word is final. Reason (R): Governor appoints the leader of the majority party as the Chief Minister and on his advice appoints other ministers. Codes:

A.  Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
B.  Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C.  A is true but R is false
D.  A is false but R is true
Answer» B.  Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
1840.

Against whom does the Lokpal not entertain complaints?

A. Against Central Ministers
B. Against State Ministers
C. Against Secretaries
D. Higher Officials Excluding Secretaries
Answer» E.
1841.

How is the National Commission for Minorities constituted?

A. One Chairperson, one Vice-Chairperson and four members
B. One Chairperson and three members
C. One Chairperson and one Vice-Chairperson and four members
D. One Chairperson and one Vice-Chairperson and three members
Answer» B. One Chairperson and three members
1842.

In which case did the Supreme Court pronounce the judgement for the first time that the 'basic structure' of the Constitution cannot be amended by Parliament?

A.  Shankari Prasad case     
B.  Golaknath case
C.  Kesavananda Bharati case          
D.  Minerva Mills case
Answer» D.  Minerva Mills case
1843.

Constituent Assembly which framed India's Constitution was set up by:

A. Indian Independence Act
B.   Government of India Act, 1935
C. Cabinet Mission Plan - 1946
D. Queen's Proclamation
Answer» D. Queen's Proclamation
1844.

Consider the following statements with regard to the Amendment process in India and choose the code giving the correct statements. 1. There are multiple procedures of amendment. 2. States are not empowered to initiate the amending proposals. 3. People can propose amending proposals through referendum. 4. Joint sitting of the Parliament can be convened to resolve amending deadlocks between the two Houses.

A. Only 1  
B. 1, 2, 3
C. 2, 3, 4   
D. Only 3
Answer» B. 1, 2, 3
1845.

Consider the following statements regarding the amendment Process in India. 1. A majority of the provisions of the Constitution can be amended by the Parliament alone, either by a simple majority or by two Third majority. 2. No time-limit has been prescribed by the Constitution for Ratification of amendments by the states. 3. Certain amendments can be initiated only by the states. 4. There is no provision in the Constitution to resolve the deadlock between the two houses of Parliament on an amendment proposal. Of the above statements

A. 1, 2 and 3 are correct,
B. 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
C. 1, 3 and 4 are correct,
D. 1, 2, 3, 4 are correct.
Answer» E.
1846.

Which of the following are the federal features of the Indian Constitution? 1. Rigid Constitution        2. Bicameralleg legislature 3. Office of the CAG    4. Collective responsibility 5. Office of the Governor

A. 1, 2 and 3          
B. l, 2 and 5
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4      
D. 1 and 2
Answer» E.
1847.

According to the ARC, the Lokpal would be appointed by

A. The President
B. Chief Justice of India
C. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
D. Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
Answer» B. Chief Justice of India
1848.

Who is appointed as the chairman of the NHRC?

A. Any retired President of India
B. Any retired Vice President of India
C. Any retired Speaker of the Lok Sabha
D. Any retired Chief Justice of India
Answer» E.
1849.

Which one of the following rights conferred by the Constitution of India is also available to non-citizens?

A. Freedom of speech, assembly and form association
B. Freedom to move, reside and settle in any part of the territory of India
C. Freedom to acquire property or to carry on any occupation, trade or business
D. Right to constitutional remedies
Answer» D. Right to constitutional remedies
1850.

Consider the following statements and choose the correct code: 1. The President has the power to withhold the amending bill. 2. The President has the power to send back the amending bill to the originating House of the Parliament.

A. 1 is true but 2 is false,
B. 2 is true but 1 is false.
C. 1 and 2 both are true.
D. 1 and 2 both are false.
Answer» D. 1 and 2 both are false.