Explore topic-wise MCQs in Testing Subject.

This section includes 657 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Testing Subject knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

Benzodiazepine antagonist ?

A. Furazolidone
B. Naltrexone
C. Flumazenil
D. Naloxone
Answer» D. Naloxone
2.

Serotonin syndrome may be precipitated by all of the following medications.Except.

A. Buspirone
B. Meperidine
C. Chlorpromazine
D. Pentazocine
Answer» D. Pentazocine
3.

A 60 yrs old man with H/O back pain since 3 months.ESR is raised.On examination marked stiffness and mild restriction of chest movements is found.On X-ray ,syndesmophytes are present in vertebrae.Diagnosis is-

A. Ankylosing hyperosteosis
B. Lumbar canal stenosis
C. Ankylosing spondylitis
D. Degenerative osteoarthritis of spine
Answer» D. Degenerative osteoarthritis of spine
4.

Maximum shortening of lower limb is seen in -

A. # shaft femur
B. # neck of femur
C. # intertrochanter
D. Transcervical #
Answer» B. # neck of femur
5.

Which one of the following drugs is not a uterine relaxant ?

A. Isoxsuprine
B. Dopamine
C. Salbutamol
D. Terbutaline
Answer» C. Salbutamol
6.

Repolarisation of ventricles is prolonged by which antiarrhythmic drug -

A. Amiodarone
B. Quinidine
C. Lignocaine
D. Procainamide
Answer» E.
7.

Pre-treatment evaluation for lithium therapy should include:

A. Serum creatinine
B. Fasting blood suger
C. Platelet count
D. Liver function tests
Answer» B. Fasting blood suger
8.

Extra pyramidal syndrome like side effects are seen in -

A. Haloperidol
B. Clozapine
C. Ketoconazole
D. Tetracycline
Answer» B. Clozapine
9.

Effect of oral contraceptive pills is inhibited by -

A. Rifampicin
B. Cimetidine
C. Ethambutol
D. Propranolol
Answer» B. Cimetidine
10.

Most common cause of nongonococcal septic arthritis is -

A. Staph - aureus
B. H. influenzae
C. Pseudomonas
D. Streptococcus
Answer» B. H. influenzae
11.

Sterile vegetations are seen in all except -

A. SLE
B. Infective endocarditis
C. Rheumatic fever
D. Marantic endocarditis
Answer» C. Rheumatic fever
12.

Which of the following statement is not true about NSAIDSs ?

A. Acetyl salicylic acid is an irreversible inhibitor of COX enzyme
B. Salicylic acid reduces in vivo synthesis of prostaglandins
C. Duration of action of aspirin in primarily related to the pharmocokinetic clearence of the drug from the body
D. Antiplatelet effect of low-dose aspirin is related to COX inhibition
Answer» D. Antiplatelet effect of low-dose aspirin is related to COX inhibition
13.

All of the following cephalosporins have good activity against pseudomonas aerugenosa except

A. Cephadroxil
B. Cefepime
C. Cefoperazone
D. Ceftazidime
Answer» B. Cefepime
14.

Prolonged use of steroids may cause:

A. Hypotension
B. Early healing of wound
C. Decrease in bone matrix protein
D. Hypoglycemia
Answer» D. Hypoglycemia
15.

Which of the following drug has selective activity at D2 receptor site ?

A. Bromocriptine
B. Pergolide
C. Ropinirole
D. Selegiline
Answer» B. Pergolide
16.

A patient requires mild cholinomimetic stimulation following surgery. Physostigmine small doses have significantly different effects on which of the following -

A. Gastric secretion
B. Neuromuscular junction
C. Sweat glands
D. Ureteral tone
Answer» C. Sweat glands
17.

All are true about clavicle, EXCEPT -

A. No treatment required for fracture but rest
B. Breaks at mid point
C. First bone to ossify
D. Ossifies in membrane
Answer» C. First bone to ossify
18.

All are toxixities seen with Amiodarone therapy except

A. Cirrhosis of liver
B. Productive cough
C. Pulmonary fibrosis
D. Corneal micro deposits
Answer» C. Pulmonary fibrosis
19.

All are true about Exenatide except-

A. It is GLP1 analogue
B. Decreases glucagon secretion
C. Given subcutaneously
D. Used in type 1DM
Answer» E.
20.

The antimicrobial agent which inhibits the ergosterol biosynthesis is

A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Amphotericin B
C. 5-Fluorocytosine
D. Griseofulvin
Answer» C. 5-Fluorocytosine
21.

Which one of the following is fourth generation cephalosporin

A. Cefamandole
B. Cefpirome
C. Cephalexin
D. Cefuroxime
Answer» C. Cephalexin
22.

The drug NOT used in prostatic carcinoma:

A. Finasteride
B. Diethyl stilbestrol
C. Testosterone
D. Flutamide
Answer» D. Flutamide
23.

The most common site of Myocardial infarction is

A. Anterolateral
B. Interventricular septum
C. Posterior wall
D. Inferior wall
Answer» B. Interventricular septum
24.

Which of the following antimicrobial agents do not require reduction in dose in patients with renal failure.

A. Vancomycin
B. Imipenem
C. Rifampicin
D. Fluconazole
Answer» D. Fluconazole
25.

Karyopyknotic index is a method for ?

A. Ovarian carcinoma
B. Hormonal evaluation
C. Dysplasia measurement
D. Measurement of cells in active replication
Answer» C. Dysplasia measurement
26.

Increased LDH helps in diagnosis of ?

A. Prostate carcinoma
B. Hepatocellular carcinoma
C. Pancreatic carcinoma
D. Renal cell carcinoma
Answer» B. Hepatocellular carcinoma
27.

True regarding use of bromocriptine for suppression of lactation includes:

A. It can cause DVT
B. It can cause hypotension
C. Metochlopromide potentiates the action of bromocriptine
D. It is given for 1 week only
Answer» C. Metochlopromide potentiates the action of bromocriptine
28.

Which of the following property of drug will enable it to be used in low concentrations -

A. High affinity
B. High specificity
C. Low specificity
D. High stability
Answer» E.
29.

All of the following drugs cause sinus tachycardia,except:

A. Clonidine
B. Theophylline
C. Atropine
D. Nifedipine
Answer» B. Theophylline
30.

Hyperglycemia may be caused by all except:

A. Corticosteroids
B. Theophylline
C. Nemulside
D. Chlorthiazides
Answer» D. Chlorthiazides
31.

True statement is-

A. Clomiphene acts as antiestrogen both on pitatary and hypothalamus
B. Danazol increases FSH and LH both
C. Methimazole inhibits thyroxine release from thyroid
D. Cyproterone is a potent antiandrogen
Answer» E.
32.

Which of the following does not bind to GABA receptor chloride channels?

A. Zolpidem
B. Buspirone
C. Ethanol
D. Alphaxolone
Answer» C. Ethanol
33.

Barr body is not seen in:

A. Klinefelter syndrome
B. Turner syndrome
C. Normal genotype
D. XXX syndrome
Answer» C. Normal genotype
34.

The primary defect which leads to sickle cell anemia is

A. Replacement of glutamate by valine in beta-chain of HbA
B. An abnormality in porphyrin part of hemoglobin
C. Substitution of valine by glutamate in the alpha-chain of HbA
D. A nonsense mutation in the beta-chain of HbA
Answer» B. An abnormality in porphyrin part of hemoglobin
35.

Which of the following is a parasympatholytic agent ?

A. Atropine
B. Neostigmine
C. Pyridostigmine
D. Acetylcholine
Answer» B. Neostigmine
36.

The statement that is NOT true of domperiodone is that -

A. It rarely causes extrapyramidal side effects
B. It is a D receptor antagonist
C. Its antiemetic efficacy is higher than metoclopramide
D. It causes loose stool
Answer» D. It causes loose stool
37.

All the following are the adverse effects of Isoniazid except -

A. Peripheral neuropathy
B. Thrombocytopenia
C. Seizures
D. Psychosis
Answer» C. Seizures
38.

Which of the following class of medicines has been linked to the occurrence of hip fracture in the elderly ?

A. Opiates
B. Beta blockers
C. Benzodiazepines
D. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor
Answer» D. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor
39.

Which of the following causes peripheral neuritis:

A. Methotrexete
B. Vincristine
C. Busulphan
D. Cyclophosphamide
Answer» C. Busulphan
40.

Organelle where H2O2 is produced and destroyed is -

A. Peroxisome
B. Lysosome
C. Golgi boby
D. Ribosome
Answer» B. Lysosome
41.

Most malignant form of NHL is:

A. Follicular cleavage
B. Large cell follicular
C. Diffuse large cell
D. Small cell lymphocytic lymphoma
Answer» D. Small cell lymphocytic lymphoma
42.

Anticoagulant of choice in pregnancy:

A. Heparin
B. Warfarin
C. Dicumarol
D. Dimercaprol
Answer» B. Warfarin
43.

Which of the following is not an amide -

A. Procaine
B. Lignocaine
C. Bupivacaine
D. Mepivacaine
Answer» B. Lignocaine
44.

Regarding sildenafil, all the following statements are correct except -

A. Valproate
B. Should not be used with nitrates
C. Inhibitor of PDEV
D. Its side effects are due to inhibition of CYP 3A4
Answer» D. Its side effects are due to inhibition of CYP 3A4
45.

All of the following are calcium channel blockers except

A. Nimodipine
B. Verapamil
C. Flunarizine
D. Pirenzepine
Answer» E.
46.

A 60 year old man with rheumatic mitral stenosis with atrial fibrillation is on therapy for a fast ventricular rate.While on treatment,he developed a regular pulse of 64/min.The most likely drug being administered was:

A. Digoxin
B. Verapamil
C. Propranolol
D. Grevedilol
Answer» B. Verapamil
47.

Mechanism of action of tetracycline is:

A. Causes misreading of mRNA
B. Causes termination of peptide chain elongation
C. Binds to A site and inhibit attachment of t-RNA
D. Inhibits peptidyl transferase
Answer» D. Inhibits peptidyl transferase
48.

Oligospermia caused by -

A. Leflunomide
B. D - peniollamine
C. Methotrexate
D. Hydroxychloroquine
Answer» D. Hydroxychloroquine
49.

HMGCoA reductase is inhibited by -

A. Lovastatin
B. Gemfibrozil
C. Clofirate
D. Nicotinic acid
Answer» B. Gemfibrozil
50.

The most appropriate drug used for chelation therapy in beta thalassemia major is:

A. Oral deferiprone
B. Oral desferrioxamine
C. Oral Succimer
D. Intramuscular EDTA
Answer» B. Oral desferrioxamine