Let f(x) = px + q and g(x) = mx + n. Then f (g(x)) = g (f(x)) is equivalent to

Let f(x) = px + q and g(x) = mx + n. Then f (g(x)) = g (f(x)) is equiv

1.	Let f(x) = px + q and g(x) = mx + n. Then f (g(x)) = g (f(x)) is equivalent to
A.	f(p) = g(m)
B.	f(q) = g(n)
C.	f(n) = g(q)
D.	f(m) = g(p)
Answer» D. f(m) = g(p)

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