Explore topic-wise MCQs in Computer Science Engineering (CSE).

This section includes 245 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Computer Science Engineering (CSE) knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

151.

The full form of PERT is

A. program evaluation and rate technology
B. program evaluation and robot technique
C. program evaluation and robot technology
D. program evaluation and review technique
Answer» E.
152.

Who introduced the bar charts?

A. williams henry
B. henry gantt
C. jane gantt
D. joseph henry
Answer» C. jane gantt
153.

Which of the following is not a phase of project management?

A. project planning
B. project scheduling
C. project controlling
D. project being
Answer» E.
154.

Bar charts were modified later to obtain the milestone charts.

A. true
B. false
C. topic 3.14 pert technique
Answer» B. false
155.

An incident can be called hazardous only when?

A. stressor has the potential to cause harm to humans and ecological systems
B. poses threat to surrounding
C. monitoring is failed
D. outburst of chemicals
Answer» B. poses threat to surrounding
156.

Hazard identification mainly focus on

A. chemical source and concentration
B. chemical exposure
C. chemical analysis
D. chemical pathway
Answer» B. chemical exposure
157.

The purpose of risk management is to identify potential problems before they occur so that risk-handling activities may be planned.

A. false
B. true
Answer» C.
158.

What is the first stage of risk assessment?

A. exposure assessment
B. hazard identification
C. toxicity study
D. risk characterization
Answer» C. toxicity study
159.

What is the main objective of risk assessment?

A. to evaluate hazard and minimize the risks
B. remediation of contaminated sites
C. hazard management
D. to know source of pollutants
Answer» B. remediation of contaminated sites
160.

Hazard is defined as the probability of suffering harm or loss.

A. true
B. false
C. topic 3.10 risk identification
D. topic 3.9 critical path (crm) method
Answer» C. topic 3.10 risk identification
161.

Why does site history have to be considered for hazard identification?

A. to estimate the risk
B. to calculate carcinogenic exposure
C. to know the probable source and causes of contamination on site
D. for determination of remedial actions
Answer» D. for determination of remedial actions
162.

Which of the following data is not required for hazard identification?

A. land use
B. contaminant levels
C. affected population
D. estimation of risk
Answer» E.
163.

The                          process determines whether exposure to a chemical can increase the incidence of adverse health effect.

A. hazard identification
B. exposure assessment
C. toxicity assessment
D. risk characterization
Answer» B. exposure assessment
164.

What is the main purpose of hazard identification?

A. to minimise the effect of a consequence
B. for better risk management
C. to characterize adverse effect of toxins
D. to reduce probability of occurrence
Answer» D. to reduce probability of occurrence
165.

TCP/IP model does not have              layer but OSI model have this layer.

A. session layer
B. transport layer
C. application layer
D. network layer
Answer» B. transport layer
166.

The number of layers in ISO OSI reference model is

A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
Answer» E.
167.

OSI stands for

A. open system interconnection
B. operating system interface
C. optical service implementation
D. open service internet
Answer» B. operating system interface
168.

Usability in metric analysis is defined as the degree to which the software

A. stated needs
B. is easy to use
C. makes optimal use of system resources
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» C. makes optimal use of system resources
169.

SMI = [Mt – (Fa + Fc + Fd)]/Mt. Here Mt is the number of modules

A. in the current release
B. in the current release that have been changed
C. from the preceding release that were deleted in the current release
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» B. in the current release that have been changed
170.

As the SMI approaches 1.0, the software product starts becoming unstable

A. true
B. false
Answer» C.
171.

SMI stands for

A. software mature indicator
B. software maturity index
C. software mature index
D. software maturity indicator
Answer» C. software mature index
172.

Function Point Computation is given by the formula

A. fp = [count total * 0.65] + 0.01 * sum(fi)
B. fp = count total * [0.65 + 0.01 * sum(fi)].
C. fp = count total * [0.65 + 0.01] * sum(fi)
D. fp = [count total * 0.65 + 0.01] * sum(fi)
Answer» C. fp = count total * [0.65 + 0.01] * sum(fi)
173.

Structural complexity of a module i is given as S(i) = f*f (i). What does f symbolizes here?

A. “fan check-out” of module i
B. “fan check-in” of module i
C. “fan in” of module i
D. “fan out” of module i
Answer» E.
174.

How many Information Domain Values are used for Function Point Computation?

A. three
B. four
C. five
D. six
Answer» D. six
175.

Function Points in software engineering was first proposed by

A. booch
B. boehm
C. albrecht
D. jacobson
Answer» D. jacobson
176.

Statement and branch coverage metrics are part of

A. analysis model
B. testing
C. design model
D. source code
Answer» C. design model
177.

Which of the following is not a metric for design model?

A. interface design metrics
B. component-level metrics
C. architectural metrics
D. complexity metrics
Answer» E.
178.

The COCOMO model takes into account different approaches to software development, reuse, etc.

A. true
B. false
Answer» C.
179.

7 INTERACTIVE PROCESSES

A. shared data structures
B. procedures that operate on shared data structure
C. synchronization between concurrent procedure invocation
D. all of the mentioned
Answer» E.
180.

Which of the following is not an option to achieve reliable cost and effort estimate?

A. base estimates on similar projects that have already been completed
B. use one or more empirical models for software cost and effort estimation
C. use relatively simple decomposition techniques to generate project cost and effort estimates
D. the ability to translate the size estimate into human effort, calendar time, and dollars
Answer» E.
181.

Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “There will be a change of organizational management with different priorities.”?

A. staff turnover
B. technology change
C. management change
D. product competition
Answer» D. product competition
182.

If you were to create client/server applications, which model would you go for?

A. winwin spiral model
B. spiral model
C. concurrent model
D. incremental model
Answer» D. incremental model
183.

How is Incremental Model different from Spiral Model?

A. progress can be measured for incremental model
B. changing requirements can be accommodated in incremental model
C. users can see the system early in incremental model
D. all of the mentioned
Answer» B. changing requirements can be accommodated in incremental model
184.

Identify the disadvantage of Spiral Model.

A. doesn’t work well for smaller projects
B. high amount of risk analysis
C. strong approval and documentation control
D. additional functionality can be added at a later date
Answer» B. high amount of risk analysis
185.

The spiral model has two dimensions namely                            and

A. diagonal, angular
B. radial, perpendicular
C. radial, angular
D. diagonal, perpendicular
Answer» D. diagonal, perpendicular
186.

How is WINWIN Spiral Model different from Spiral Model?

A. it defines tasks required to define resources, timelines, and other project related information
B. it defines a set of negotiation activities at the beginning of each pass around the spiral
C. it defines tasks required to assess both technical and management risks
D. it defines tasks required to construct, test, install, and provide user support
Answer» C. it defines tasks required to assess both technical and management risks
187.

What is the major advantage of using Incremental Model?

A. customer can respond to each increment
B. easier to test and debug
C. it is used when there is a need to get a product to the market early
D. easier to test and debug & it is used when there is a need to get a product to the market early
Answer» E.
188.

Software project estimation can never be an exact science, but a combination of good historical data and systematic techniques can improve estimation accuracy.

A. true
B. false
Answer» B. false
189.

Which of the following is not achieved by an automated estimation tools?

A. predicting staffing levels
B. predicting software cost
C. predicting software schedules
D. predicting clients demands
Answer» E.
190.

What can be used to complement decomposition techniques and offer a potentially valuable estimation approach in their own right?

A. automated estimation tools
B. empirical estimation models
C. decomposition techniques
D. both automated estimation tools and empirical estimation models
Answer» C. decomposition techniques
191.

The environment that supports the software project is called

A. clss
B. see
C. fast
D. cbse
Answer» C. fast
192.

The project planner examines the statement of scope and extracts all important software functions which is known as

A. association
B. decomposition
C. planning process
D. all of the mentioned
Answer» C. planning process
193.

CLSS stands for

A. conveyor line sorting system
B. conveyor line sorting software
C. conveyor line sorting speed
D. conveyor line sorting specification
Answer» B. conveyor line sorting software
194.

A number of independent investigators have developed a team-oriented approach to requirements gathering that can be applied to establish the scope of a project called

A. jad
B. class
C. fast
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» D. none of the mentioned
195.

What describes the data and control to be processed?

A. planning process
B. software scope
C. external hardware
D. project complexity
Answer» C. external hardware
196.

Which of the following is an important factor that can affect the accuracy and efficacy of estimates?

A. project size
B. planning process
C. project complexity
D. degree of structural uncertainty
Answer» B. planning process
197.

What information is required to process a change to a baseline?

A. reasons for making the changes
B. a description of the proposed changes
C. list of other items affected by the changes
D. all of the mentioned
Answer» E.
198.

CCB stands for

A. change control board
B. change control baseline
C. cumulative changes in baseline
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» B. change control baseline
199.

Configuration management (CM) is needed to deliver product to the client

A. true
B. false
Answer» B. false
200.

Which of the following is a example of Configuration Items ?

A. scm procedures
B. source code
C. software design descriptions
D. all of the mentioned
Answer» E.