MCQOPTIONS
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MCQOPTIONS
This section includes 152 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Bachelor of Business Administration (BBA) knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.
| 101. |
The procedure is relatively _____ when compared to that in ordinary courts or labour tribunals. |
| A. | expeditious |
| B. | compromising |
| C. | binding |
| D. | delayed |
| Answer» B. compromising | |
| 102. |
The decision of the arbitrator should be based on which approach? |
| A. | quasi - judicial |
| B. | split the difference |
| C. | judicial |
| D. | non – judicial |
| Answer» C. judicial | |
| 103. |
Which are the two traits on which the award of an arbitrator rests on? |
| A. | compromise and liberty |
| B. | fair play and impartiality |
| C. | equity and justice |
| D. | all of the above |
| Answer» D. all of the above | |
| 104. |
Arbitration is a _____ process, while mediation has a ____ tinge. |
| A. | legal and statutory |
| B. | lawful and constitutional |
| C. | legitimate and compromising |
| D. | judicial and legislative |
| Answer» E. | |
| 105. |
What is the main objective of arbitration as per the Industrial Disputes Act? |
| A. | securing an award |
| B. | dominance |
| C. | adjudication |
| D. | binding of the award on the parties |
| Answer» D. binding of the award on the parties | |
| 106. |
Which amongst these is a technique used by the conciliator? |
| A. | searching for accommodation |
| B. | being adamant |
| C. | listening attentively |
| D. | unbiased |
| Answer» D. unbiased | |
| 107. |
____________ is a process in which a dispute is submitted to an impartial outsider who makes a decision which is usually binding on both the parties. |
| A. | arbitration |
| B. | adjudication |
| C. | court of enquiry |
| D. | none of the above |
| Answer» B. adjudication | |
| 108. |
__________ and ____________ are the two attributes which every conciliator should possess. |
| A. | independence and impartiality |
| B. | technicality and suspicion |
| C. | persuasion and perceiving |
| D. | conviction and arduous |
| Answer» B. technicality and suspicion | |
| 109. |
Which are the unique and essential characteristics of the conciliation process? |
| A. | flexibility, informality and simplicity |
| B. | blase, clumsy and decisive |
| C. | candid, conceited and dismayed |
| D. | fierce, intrepid and meticulous |
| Answer» B. blase, clumsy and decisive | |
| 110. |
Which are the two methods on which a conciliator relies on to resolve the disputes between two parties? |
| A. | cognition and influence |
| B. | reasoning and persuasion |
| C. | rationale and coaxing |
| D. | motivation and leadership |
| Answer» C. rationale and coaxing | |
| 111. |
__________ and __________ are regarded as equivalent terms referring to essentially the same kind of third – party intervention in promoting voluntary settlement of disputes. |
| A. | mediation and conciliation |
| B. | conciliation and arbitration |
| C. | mediation and court of enquiry |
| D. | none of the above |
| Answer» B. conciliation and arbitration | |
| 112. |
The mediator has been described as a confidential _________ and an industrial diplomat. |
| A. | peace - maker |
| B. | messenger |
| C. | adviser |
| D. | none of the above |
| Answer» D. none of the above | |
| 113. |
As per which professor the distinction between mediation and conciliation is hair - splitting? |
| A. | prof. foxwell |
| B. | prof. pigou |
| C. | prof. davey |
| D. | all of the above |
| Answer» D. all of the above | |
| 114. |
Which of these is an unfair labour practice on part of the employer? |
| A. | to incite or indulge in willful damage to employer property connected with the industry |
| B. | to advise or actively support or instigate any strike deemed to be illegal |
| C. | for a recognized union to refuse to bargain collectively in good faith with the employer |
| D. | none of the above |
| Answer» E. | |
| 115. |
Which of these is an unfair labour practice on part of the workmen? |
| A. | to recruit workman during a strike which is not illegal |
| B. | to discharge or dismiss workmen |
| C. | indulging in coercive activities against certification of a bargaining representative |
| D. | to indulge in acts of force or violence |
| Answer» D. to indulge in acts of force or violence | |
| 116. |
Condition of service for change of which notice is to be given; is mention in which section of the act? |
| A. | section 9a |
| B. | section 7a |
| C. | section 7 |
| D. | section 2a |
| Answer» B. section 7a | |
| 117. |
Which of the options is a manning Is it justified? attar mentioned in the jurisdiction of labour courts? |
| A. | the propriety or legality of an order passed by an employer under the standing orders |
| B. | discharge or dismissal of workmen including reinstatement of, or grant of relief to, workmen wrongfully dismissed |
| C. | all matters other than those specified in the third schedule |
| D. | leave with wages and holidays |
| Answer» E. | |
| 118. |
Which of the option is a matter mentioned in the jurisdiction of labour courts? |
| A. | withdrawal of any customary concession or privilege |
| B. | application and interpretation of standing orders |
| C. | illegality or otherwise of a strike or lock out |
| D. | all of the above |
| Answer» E. | |
| 119. |
A workmen who is a member of the executive or other office bearer of a registered trade union connected with the establishment is _________ |
| A. | badli workmen |
| B. | conciliation officer |
| C. | skilled labour |
| D. | protected workmen |
| Answer» E. | |
| 120. |
The ____________ can make rules for the distribution of protected workman among various trade unions. |
| A. | central government |
| B. | state authority |
| C. | appropriate government |
| D. | conciliation officer |
| Answer» D. conciliation officer | |
| 121. |
The penalty for closing an undertaking without prior notice is _____. |
| A. | imprisonment for upto 6 months or; |
| B. | fine upto 5000 rupees |
| C. | both imprisonment and fine |
| D. | all of the above |
| Answer» E. | |
| 122. |
What should be the percentage of "protected workmen" of the total number of workmen employed in any establishment? |
| A. | 1% |
| B. | 5% |
| C. | 10% |
| D. | 15% |
| Answer» B. 5% | |
| 123. |
Which section deals with the prohibitions of lay - offs? |
| A. | 25m |
| B. | 25n |
| C. | 25f |
| D. | 25 |
| Answer» B. 25n | |
| 124. |
If an undertaking is closed down on account of unavoidable circumstances, the compensation to be paid to the workman under clause b of section 25F shall not exceed his average pay of ____. |
| A. | 1 month |
| B. | 15 days |
| C. | 60 days |
| D. | 3 months |
| Answer» E. | |
| 125. |
How many does notice is the employer supposed to give before closing down an establishment as per section 25FFA? |
| A. | 90 days |
| B. | 60 days |
| C. | 30 days |
| D. | 120 days |
| Answer» C. 30 days | |
| 126. |
What is the penalty faced by an employer if he lays - off or retrenches an employee without prior permission? |
| A. | imprisonment for upto a month and a fine of upto 1000 rupees |
| B. | imprisonment for upto a month or; |
| C. | fine of upto 1000 rupees |
| D. | all of the above |
| Answer» E. | |
| 127. |
How many days of notice period is mandatory for a workman who has been in continuous service for more than a year while retrenchment? |
| A. | 1 month |
| B. | 2 months |
| C. | 15 days |
| D. | 45 days |
| Answer» B. 2 months | |
| 128. |
Which section deals with compensation to workmen in case of transfer of undertakings? |
| A. | section 25f |
| B. | section 25ff |
| C. | section 25 |
| D. | section 25e |
| Answer» C. section 25 | |
| 129. |
How much compensation does the workman deserve at the time of retrenchment? |
| A. | equivalent to 15 days average pay |
| B. | 6 months |
| C. | equivalent to 30 days average pay |
| D. | none of the above |
| Answer» B. 6 months | |
| 130. |
A workmen who is employed in an industrial establishment in the place of another workman whose name is borne on the muster rolls of the establishment is ___ |
| A. | temporary workmen |
| B. | permanent workmen |
| C. | badli workmen |
| D. | none of the above |
| Answer» D. none of the above | |
| 131. |
Section ____ covers the definition of continuous service. |
| A. | 25b |
| B. | 25 |
| C. | 25a |
| D. | 26 |
| Answer» B. 25 | |
| 132. |
No person employed in a public utility service shall go on strike in breach of contract within ____ of giving such a notice. |
| A. | 14 days |
| B. | 6 weeks |
| C. | 7 days |
| D. | none of the above |
| Answer» C. 7 days | |
| 133. |
How many days of service will be termed as continuous service when working in a mine industry? |
| A. | 190 days |
| B. | 240 days |
| C. | 365 days |
| D. | 180 days |
| Answer» B. 240 days | |
| 134. |
-Which of the following is (are) not acceptable to Marxists? |
| A. | enterprise bargaining |
| B. | employee participation |
| C. | co-operative work culture |
| D. | all of the above |
| Answer» E. | |
| 135. |
-For the Marxists, all strikes are |
| A. | political |
| B. | social |
| C. | legislative |
| D. | none of the above |
| Answer» B. social | |
| 136. |
-Pluralistic approach perceives ______ as legitimate representative of employee interests |
| A. | trade unions |
| B. | management |
| C. | board of directors |
| D. | none of the above |
| Answer» B. management | |
| 137. |
-In Marxist approach, concerns with wage related disputes are |
| A. | primary |
| B. | secondary |
| C. | tertiary |
| D. | not considered |
| Answer» C. tertiary | |
| 138. |
-Under unitary approach, industrial relation is grounded in |
| A. | mutual co-operation |
| B. | individual treatment |
| C. | team work and shared goals |
| D. | all of the above |
| Answer» E. | |
| 139. |
-Which of the following is not an approach to industrial relations? |
| A. | unitary approach |
| B. | pluralistic approach |
| C. | marxist approach |
| D. | employee’s approach |
| Answer» E. | |
| 140. |
-A course on Industrial relations in its MBA programme was firstly introduced by |
| A. | iim indore |
| B. | xlri jamshedpur |
| C. | mdi gurgaon |
| D. | iim bangalore |
| Answer» C. mdi gurgaon | |
| 141. |
On what grounds can a union refuse to admit a person or expel a member? |
| A. | because of goodwill |
| B. | because of misconduct |
| C. | because of change in job |
| D. | none of the above |
| Answer» C. because of change in job | |
| 142. |
-Industrial relations cover the following area(s) |
| A. | collective bargaining |
| B. | labour legislation |
| C. | industrial relations training |
| D. | all of the above |
| Answer» E. | |
| 143. |
Which of the following is an object on which general funds could be spent as per section 15 of the act? |
| A. | payment to buy goods required for the enterprise |
| B. | payment of employees in the factory establishment |
| C. | the payment of expenses for the administration of trade union or any member thereof |
| D. | all of the above |
| Answer» E. | |
| 144. |
Which of the following acts do not apply to the registered trade unions? |
| A. | the co-operative societies act, 1912 |
| B. | the societies registration act, 1860 |
| C. | the companies act, 1956 |
| D. | all of the above |
| Answer» C. the companies act, 1956 | |
| 145. |
How many members should sign the notice of dissolution? |
| A. | 5 members and the secretary of the trade union |
| B. | 10 members and the secretary of the trade union |
| C. | 20 members and the secretary of the trade union |
| D. | 7 members and the secretary of the trade union |
| Answer» E. | |
| 146. |
How many percentage of votes should be recorded when amalgamating 2 or more registered trade unions? |
| A. | 60% |
| B. | 50% |
| C. | 20% |
| D. | 75% |
| Answer» B. 50% | |
| 147. |
How many member's consent is required to change the name of the registered trade union? |
| A. | 1/4th of the total members |
| B. | 3/4th of the total members |
| C. | half of the total members |
| D. | 2/3rd of the total member |
| Answer» E. | |
| 148. |
What is the minimum number of trade union members requires in registering themselves as a union? |
| A. | 7 |
| B. | 10 |
| C. | 5 |
| D. | 15 |
| Answer» B. 10 | |
| 149. |
The act came into force from ______. |
| A. | 1st june, 1927 |
| B. | 1st april, 1965 |
| C. | 1st may, 1960 |
| D. | 1st april, 1962 |
| Answer» C. 1st may, 1960 | |
| 150. |
In which year's amendment of the act was the word ‘Indian― removed? |
| A. | 1947 |
| B. | 1960 |
| C. | 1964 |
| D. | 1962 |
| Answer» D. 1962 | |