Explore topic-wise MCQs in UPSC IAS Exam.

This section includes 2618 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your UPSC IAS Exam knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1401.

Who among the following extends the jurisdiction of a High Court to, or excludes from, any Union territory?

A.  Parliament by law
B.  The President of India
C.  The Chief Justice of India
D.  Legislature of the State in which the High Court is situated
Answer» B.  The President of India
1402.

The writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India under Article 32 of the Constitution of India is not wider than that of the writ jurisdiction of the High Courts under Article 226 because the High Courts may exercise this power in relation to:

A.  Civil and criminal matters               
B.  Fundamental and other legal rights
C.  Fundamental rights and matters in appeals
D.  Fundamental rights and stay matters
Answer» C.  Fundamental rights and matters in appeals
1403.

A retired judge of a High Court cannot:

A.  Practise in the Supreme Court                                                       
B.  Practise in any High Court in India                                                      
C.  Practise in the High Court from where he has retired
D.  Practise in any court in India
Answer» D.  Practise in any court in India
1404.

The transfer of Judges from one High Court to another High Court may be made by the:

A.  President of India in consultation with the
B.  Chief Justice of that High Court.
C.  Chief Justice of the concerned High Court.
D.  Governor of the concerned State in consultation with the Chief Justice of India. President of India after consultation with the Chief Justice of India.
Answer» E.
1405.

Consider the following statements: A high court has jurisdiction to: 1. Punish for its contempt 2. Tender advice on a legal question referred to it by the President of India 3. Tender advice on a legal question referred to it by the Governor of the State 4. Issue certain writs for enforcement of Fundamental Rights or for other purposes Which of the statements given above are correct?

A.  1 and 4           
B.  1 and 2
C.  1, 2 and 3                    
D.  2, 3 and 4
Answer» B.  1 and 2
1406.

Which of the following are the main jurisdictions of the High Court of a State? 1. Original jurisdiction                     2. Appellate jurisdiction 3. Supervisory jurisdiction                   4. Advisory jurisdiction Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

A.  1, 2 and 3                             
B.  2, 3 and 4
C.  1, 3 and 4                             
D.  1, 2 and 4
Answer» B.  2, 3 and 4
1407.

Under which Article(s) of the Constitution of India, is the power to issue writs for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights vested in the Supreme Court and the High Courts?

A.  Article 32 only                        
B.  Article 226 only
C.  Article 32 and Article 226 both          
D.  Neither Article 32 nor Article 226
Answer» D.  Neither Article 32 nor Article 226
1408.

Under the provisions of the Constitution of India, who is entitled to be consulted by the President of India in the matter of the appointments of the Judges of the High Courts?

A.  The Union Minister of Law and Justice   
B.  The Advocate General of the State
C.  The Attorney-General of India          
D.  The Governor
Answer» E.
1409.

The power of judicial review means:

A.  The power of the courts to define and interpret constitution
B.  The power of the courts to declare null and void any legislative or executive act, which is against the provisions of the Constitution
C.  The power of the judiciary to define and interpret laws
D.  The power of the courts to legislate when there is no statutory provision
Answer» C.  The power of the judiciary to define and interpret laws
1410.

A Judge of a High Court can be removed from office during his tenure by:

A.  The Governor, if the State Legislature passes a resolution to this effect by two-thirds majority
B.  The President, on the basis of a resolution passed by the Parliament by two-thirds majority
C.  The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court, on the recommendation of the Parliament
D.  The Chief Justice of the High Court, on the recommendation of the State Legislature
Answer» C.  The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court, on the recommendation of the Parliament
1411.

The High Court having the jurisdiction in judicial matters relating to the largest number of States / Union Territories is:

A.  Calcutta High Court                   
B.  Kerala High Court
C.  Bombay High Court                   
D.  Guwahati High Court
Answer» E.
1412.

Consider the following statements: 1. The maximum number of Judges in a High Court are specified in the Constitution of India. 2. Every High Court has a power of superintendence over all courts and tribunals (except military tribunals) provided they are subject to appellate jurisdiction of the High Court. Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

A.  Only 1             
B.  Only 2
C.  Both 1 and 2    
D.  Neither 1 nor 2
Answer» E.
1413.

The de-jure head of a State Government is the:

A.  Chief Minister of the State               
B.  Law Minister of the State
C.  Home Minister of the State              
D.  Governor of the State
Answer» E.
1414.

Assertion (A): According to the Constitution of India, the same person cannot function as the Governor of two or more States at the same time.Reason (R): Article 153 of the Constitution states that there shall be a Governor for each State.Codes:                                              

A.  Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
B.  Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C.  A is true but R is false
D.  A is false but R is true
Answer» E.
1415.

Which of the following are functions to which the scope of the discretionary powers of the Governor is limited? 1. The appointment of the Chief Minister 2. The dismissal of the Ministry 3. The dissolution of the Legislative Assembly 4. Assent to Bills Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

A.  1, 2 and 3                    
B.  1, 2, 3 and 4
C.  1, 3 and 4                    
D.  2, 3 and 4
Answer» B.  1, 2, 3 and 4
1416.

When a Bill passed by the State Legislature attempts to take away the powers of the High Court and is presented before the Governor for his assent, he:

A.  May give his assent
B.  May withhold his assent
C.  Is bound to return the Bill for reconsideration
D.  Is bound to reserve the Bill for the consideration of the President
Answer» E.
1417.

Consider the following statements: 1. There is a bar to the selection of a Governor of a State from amongst the members of the Legislature of the State. 2. The original plan in the Draft Constitution of India was to have an elected Governor but in the Constituent Assembly it was replaced by the method of appointment by the President of India. 3. The method of appointment of a Governor of a State by the President of India is repugnant to the prevailing practice in the federal systems of the United States of America and Australia. Which of the statements given above are correct?

A.  1, 2 and 3
B.  1 and 2 only
C.  2 and 3 only
D.  1 and 3 only
Answer» D.  1 and 3 only
1418.

Which one of the following Constitutional Amendments made it possible to appoint one person to hold the office of the Governor in two or more states simultaneously?

A.  Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956
B.  Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) Act, 1976
C.  Constitution (Forty-third Amendment) Act, 1977
D.  Constitution (Forty-fourth Amendment) Act, 1978
Answer» B.  Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) Act, 1976
1419.

Consider the following statements with respect to the powers of the Governor of a State: 1. The governor can summon, prorogue and dissolve the State Assembly. 2. The Governor can adjourn the sittings of the State Assembly. 3. The Governor addresses the first session of the Legislative Assembly after elections. 4. The Governor causes to lay the annual budget in the State Assembly. Which of the statements given above are correct?

A.  1 and 2           
B.  1, 3 and 4
C.  2 and 3           
D.  2 and 4
Answer» C.  2 and 3           
1420.

Consider the following statements with regard to the powers enjoyed by the Governor of a State: 1. He addresses the Legislative Assembly of the State at the commencement of the first session of each year. 2. He can send messages to the Legislative Assembly with respect to a Bill pending in the Assembly at that time. 3. He can summon, prorogue and dissolve the Legislative Assembly of the State. 4. He can give assent to a Bill to curtail the powers of the State High Court. Which of these are correct?

A.  1 and 4           
B.  3 and 4
C.  1 and 2           
D.  1, 2 and 3
Answer» E.
1421.

Rules for more convenient transaction of business of the State Government are made by:

A.  The Chief Secretary
B.  A Committee of Secretaries
C.  The Department of Home of the concerned State Government
D.  The Governor
Answer» E.
1422.

Which one of the following is not correct in respect of the Governor's Ordinance-making power?

A.  It is exercised only when the Legislature is not in session.
B.  It is a discretionary power which need not be exercised with the aid and advice of Ministers.
C.  The Governor himself is competent to withdraw the Ordinance at any time.
D.  The scope of the Ordinance-making power is limited to subjects in List II and List III of Schedule VII.
Answer» C.  The Governor himself is competent to withdraw the Ordinance at any time.
1423.

Under which Article of the Constitution of India, the State Governor can reserve a Bill for the consideration of the President?

A.  Article 169                   
B.  Article 200
C.  Article 201                   
D.  Article 257
Answer» C.  Article 201                   
1424.

Assertion (A): Reservation of a State Bill for the assent of the President is a discretionary power of the Governor. Reason (R): The President of India can disallow a Bill passed by a State Legislature or return it for reconsideration. Codes:

A.  Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
B.  Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C.  A is true but R is false
D.  A is false but R is true
Answer» C.  A is true but R is false
1425.

The Governor of a State may be removed from the office by the President:

A.  At the request of the Chief Minister
B.  On the advice of the Lok Ayukta
C.  On the advice of the Union Cabinet
D.  On the advice of the Attorney-General of India
Answer» D.  On the advice of the Attorney-General of India
1426.

Consider the following matters: 1. Reservation of the State Bill for the consideration of the President 2. Delivery of Speech in the House of the Legislature 3. Recommendation to the President to impose the President's Rule Under Article 163 of the Constitution of India, the Governor is required to act in accordance with the advice of the Council of Ministers; but in relation to which of the matters given above, the said rule is not applicable?

A.  1 and 3
B.  1, 2 and 3
C.  2 and 3           
D.  Only 2
Answer» B.  1, 2 and 3
1427.

Who of the following is not appointed by the Governor?

A.  State Council of Ministers
B.  State Advocate General
C.  State Director General of Police
D.  Members of State Public Service Commission
Answer» D.  Members of State Public Service Commission
1428.

In which one of the following states, it is not constitutionally obligatory for the Governor to appoint a minister in-charge of tribal affairs?

A.  Bihar   
B.  Madhya Pradesh
C.  Odisha            
D.  Jharkhand
Answer» B.  Madhya Pradesh
1429.

Consider the following statements: 1. As regards legislative powers, the Governor of a State is not a part of the State Legislature. 2. The Governor of a State has no emergency powers to meet the situation arising from external aggression. Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

A.  Only 1             
B.  Only 2
C.  Both 1 and 2    
D.  Neither 1 nor 2
Answer» C.  Both 1 and 2    
1430.

On which of the following issues can a Governor make recommendation to the President? 1. Dismissal of the State Council of Ministers 2. Removal of the Judges of the High Court 3. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly 4. Declaration of the breakdown of the Constitutional Machinery in the State Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A.  1, 2 and 3                    
B.  2, 3 and 4
C.  1, 3 and 4        
D.  1, 2 and 4
Answer» D.  1, 2 and 4
1431.

Under Article 213, the Governor of a State is empowered to:

A.  Exercise discretionary powers
B.  Promulgate ordinances during the recess of the Legislature
C.  Appoint a Judge of the State High Court
D.  Exercise his emergency powers
Answer» C.  Appoint a Judge of the State High Court
1432.

Consider the following statements: The Governor of a State: 1. Is vested with executive power under the Constitution of India 2. Is needed because of the federal structure of government 3. Was to be elected according to the original Draft Constitution of India 4. Is chosen only from among the categories laid down in the Constitution of India Which of these statements are correct?

A.  1 and 4           
B.  2 and 3
C.  1, 2 and 3                    
D.  2, 3 and 4
Answer» D.  2, 3 and 4
1433.

Assertion (A): The Draft Constitution provided for the direct election of the Governor. Reason (R): The Constituent Assembly opted for the present system of appointment of the Governor by the President. Codes:

A.  Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
B.  Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C.  A is true but R is false
D.  A is false but R is true
Answer» C.  A is true but R is false
1434.

The correct constitutional position regarding the Governor is that the:

A.  Governor acts on the advice of the Prime Minister
B.  Governor acts on the advice of the President of India
C.  Governor acts on the advice of the Chief Minister of the State
D.  Governor acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers of the State
Answer» E.
1435.

Consider the following statements:                                                        Under Article 200 of the Constitution of India, the Governor may:                             1. Withhold his assent to a Bill passed by the State Legislature.                                    2. Reserve the Bill passed by the State Legislature for the consideration of the President. 3. Return a Bill, other than a Money Bill, for reconsideration of the legislature. Which of the statements given above are correct?

A.  1 and 2           
B.  2 and 3
C.  1 and 3           
D.  1, 2 and 3
Answer» E.
1436.

When can the Governor of a State issue an ordinance?

A.  When the Union Government asks him to do so
B.  Whenever there is a law and order problem in the State                                    
C.  Whenever the State Legislature is not in session and the Governor is satisfied that immediate action is needed                                                                         
D.  Whenever the Judiciary advises him to do so
Answer» D.  Whenever the Judiciary advises him to do so
1437.

On receipt of the report from the Governor of a State that the Government of the State cannot be earner on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution, the President of India under Article 356:

A.  Has to proclaim President's Rule in the State
B.  Has to dismiss the State Government and dissolve the Legislative Assembly
C.  Has to dismiss the Government but keep that Legislative Assembly in a state of suspended animation
D.  May refuse to impose President's Rule in the State
Answer» B.  Has to dismiss the State Government and dissolve the Legislative Assembly
1438.

Consider the following statements: The Governor of a State has the power to appoint: 1. Judges of the High Court 2. Members of the State Public Service Commission 3. Members of the State Finance Commission 4. The Accountant General Which of these statements are correct?

A.  1 and 2           
B.  2 and 3
C.  1, 3 and 4                    
D.  1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer» C.  1, 3 and 4                    
1439.

  Consider the following statements: 1. The Parliament by law may appoint the Governor of a state as the Administrator of an adjoining Union territory. 2. If a Governor of a State is appointed to act as an Administrator of an adjoining Union territory, he shall exercise his functions as such Administrator independently of his Council of Ministers. Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

A.  1 only             
B.  2 only
C.  Both 1 and 2    
D.  Neither 1 nor 2
Answer» C.  Both 1 and 2    
1440.

Which among the following provisions of the Constitution of India is/are fulfilled by the National Social Assistance Programme launched by the Government of India?             Fundamental Rights Fundamental Duties Directive Principles of State Policy Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 and 2            
B. 1 and 3
C. Only 3              
D. All of these
Answer» D. All of these
1441.

The Rights to Information means and includes Inspection of documents.             1. Taking out files from office to any place desired by the applicant. 2. Taking photograph of files. 3. Obtaining information in tapes. Select the correct answer using the codes given below

A. 1 and 3            
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 2 and 4            
D. All of these
Answer» D. All of these
1442.

Which among the following conditions are necessary for the issue of writ of quo warrantor 1. The office must be public and must be created by a Statute or by the constitution itself. 2. The office must be a substantive one and not merely the function or employment of a servant at the will and during the pleasure of another. 3. There has been a contravention of the Constitution or a Statute or Statutory Instrument, in appointing such person to that office. Select the correct answer using the codes given below

A. 1 and 2            
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3            
D. All of these
Answer» E.
1443.

Which of the following statements regarding writ of certiorari is/are correct? 1. There should be court, tribunal or an officer having legal authority to determine the questions of deciding Fundamental Rights with a duty to act judicially. 2. Write of certiorari is available during me tendency of proceedings before a subordinate court. Select the correct answer using the codes given below

A. Only 1              
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2                 
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer» C. Both 1 and 2                 
1444.

Which of the following are envisaged as being part of the 'Right against Exploitation' in the Constitution of India? 1. Prohibition of traffic inhuman beings and forced labour. 2. Abolition of untouchability. 3. Protection of the interests of the minorities. 4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines. Select the correct answer using the codes given below

A. 1 and 2            
B. 1 and 3
C. 1 and 4            
D. 2, 3 and 4
Answer» D. 2, 3 and 4
1445.

Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. In India, the constitutional remedy under Article 32 is available only in case of Fundamental Rights, not in the case of rights which follow from some other provision in the Constitution. 2. Both the Supreme Court and High Courts can issue the writs of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari and quo warranto only for the purpose of enforcement of Fundamental Rights. Select the correct answer using the codes given below

A. Only 1              
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2                 
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer» D. Neither 1 nor 2
1446.

Which of the following statements regarding the Fundamental Duties contained in the Constitution of India are correct? 1. Fundamental Duties can be enforced through writ jurisdiction. 2. Fundamental Duties have formed a part of the Constitution since its adoption. 3. Fundamental Duties became a part of the Constitution in accordance with the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee. 4. Fundamental Duties are applicable only to the citizens of India. Select the correct answer using the codes given below

A. 1 and 2            
B. 2 and 4
C. 2 and 3            
D. 3 and 4
Answer» E.
1447.

In which of the following years the Fundamental Duties have been added to the existent Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India?

A. 1965
B.               1976
C. 1979                            
D. 1982
Answer» C. 1979                            
1448.

Consider the following statements. 1. Article 46 of the Constitution of India provides for free legal aid to Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. 2. Article 14 of the Constitution of India provides for equality before law. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. Only 1              
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2                 
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer» C. Both 1 and 2                 
1449.

Which of the following statements is/are correct? Article 26 of the Constitution of India states that subject to public order, morality and health, every religious denomination or any section thereof shall have the right. 1. to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes. 2. to manage its own affairs in matters of religion. 3. to own and acquire movable and immovable property Select the correct answer using the codes given below

A. Only 1              
B. 1 and 3
C. 1 and 3            
D. All of the above
Answer» E.
1450.

Which Article of the Constitution of India says, 'No child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment'?

A. Article 24          
B. Article 45
C. Article 330                    
D. Article 368
Answer» B. Article 45