Explore topic-wise MCQs in Testing Subject.

This section includes 657 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Testing Subject knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

LH surge occurs how many hours before ovulation ?

A. 6-8 hours
B. 10-16 hours
C. 18-24 hours
D. More than 24 hours
Answer» E.
2.

Following represents foetal hypoxia except:

A. Meconium in vertex presentation
B. Excessive foetal movements
C. Heart rate <100
D. Foetal scalp blood pH >7.3
Answer» E.
3.

Clue cell is seen in-

A. Chlamydiasis
B. Trichomonas
C. Bacterial vaginosis
D. Candidial vaginosis
Answer» D. Candidial vaginosis
4.

Fetomaternal barrier consists of:

A. Villous space with cytotrophoblast with intervillous mesoderm with fetal capillary membrane
B. Fetal,maternal capillary membrane
C. Syncytiotrophoblast
D. Maternal capillary membrane
Answer» B. Fetal,maternal capillary membrane
5.

Which of the following investigation is not done in carcinoma cervix:

A. Chest x-ray
B. Pelvic USG
C. Cystoscopy
D. IVP
Answer» C. Cystoscopy
6.

The patient with preeclampsia diagnosed remote from term, which of the following is not necessarily an indication for expeditious delivery -

A. Blood pressure 170/115 on medication
B. Proteinuria 5g per 24 hours
C. Platelet count 80,000/ul
D. Serum transaminase levels three times normal
Answer» C. Platelet count 80,000/ul
7.

Gonorrhoea first involved ?

A. Vagina
B. Cervix
C. Vulva
D. Uterus
Answer» C. Vulva
8.

Number of follicles in female newborn is ?

A. 1 Million
B. 2 Million
C. 3 Million
D. 4 Million
Answer» B. 2 Million
9.

Pre-requisites for forceps delivery are all except -

A. Adequate analgesia
B. Fully dilated cervix
C. Relaxed uterus
D. Ruptured membranes
Answer» D. Ruptured membranes
10.

Call-Exner bodies are seen in the microscopic examination of the following Ovarian tumors -

A. Clear cell tumor
B. Granulosa cell tumor
C. Hilus cell tumor
D. Theca cell tumor
Answer» C. Hilus cell tumor
11.

A primi with vaginal bleeding at term but vitals normal.Management is -

A. Immediate LSCS
B. Examination under anaesthesia with amniotomy
C. Conservative management
D. Classical caesarean
Answer» C. Conservative management
12.

Best parameter for ultrasound evaluation of IUGR is -

A. Placemental membrane
B. Length of femur
C. Abdominal circumference
D. BPD
Answer» D. BPD
13.

A pregnant woman is found to have excessive accumulation of amniotic fluid.Such polyhdramnios is likely to be associated with all of the following conditions,except:

A. Twinning
B. Microanencephaly
C. Oesophageal atresia
D. Bilateral renal agenesis
Answer» E.
14.

Maximum chance of restoration is seen in which form of recanalisation procedure:

A. Isthmo-Isthmic
B. Isthmo-ampullary
C. Ampullo-ampullary
D. Ampullo infundibular
Answer» B. Isthmo-ampullary
15.

A 45 year old lady complains contact bleeding.She has positive pap smear.The next line of management is-

A. Colposcopy directed biopsy
B. Cone biopsy
C. Repeat papsmear
D. Hysterectomy
Answer» B. Cone biopsy
16.

'Call exner bodies' are seen in-

A. Dysgerminoma
B. Theca cell tumour
C. Granulosa cell tumour
D. Polyembryoma
Answer» D. Polyembryoma
17.

The term 'Precocious puberty' is reserved for girls who exhibit any secondary sex characteristics before the age of-

A. 6 years
B. 8 years
C. 10 years
D. 13 years
Answer» C. 10 years
18.

Gestational age is best assessed by:

A. LMP
B. Fundal height
C. Serial USG
D. From date of ovulation
Answer» D. From date of ovulation
19.

As per WHO definition, anemia in pregnancy is diagnosed if the hemoglobin level is less than

A. 8 g/dL
B. 10 g/dL
C. 11 g/dL
D. 14 g/dL
Answer» D. 14 g/dL
20.

X-ray pelvimetry is done in all of the following except

A. Osteomalacia
B. Breach presentation
C. Severe CPD
D. Outlet obstruction
Answer» D. Outlet obstruction
21.

Asherman's syndrome can be diagnosed by all except -

A. Saline width of genital hiatus
B. Hysterosalpingography
C. Hysteroscopy
D. Endometrial culture
Answer» E.
22.

Most common cause of perinatal mortality in twins is ?

A. Single fetal demise
B. Twin to twin transfusion
C. Prematurity
D. Intra uterine growth restriction
Answer» D. Intra uterine growth restriction
23.

Anti-progesterone drugs is -

A. Cyproterone
B. Mifepristone
C. Spirino lactone
D. Tomoxifen
Answer» C. Spirino lactone
24.

Memory of CuT is ?

A. 1 minute
B. 2 minute
C. 3 minute
D. 4 minute
Answer» C. 3 minute
25.

A 26 year old primigravida with severe rheumatic heart disease(mitral stenosis with mitral regurgitation) is in early labour.The obstetrician wants to try a normal labour.Which of the following is the ideal intervention for labour analgesia ?

A. Parenteral opioids
B. Neuraxial analgesia
C. Inhalational analgesia
D. Spinal anaesthesia
Answer» C. Inhalational analgesia
26.

Which of the following drugs is not useful in the management of Postpartum Hemorrhage(PPH):

A. Oxytocin
B. Ergotamine
C. Mifepristone
D. Misoprostol
Answer» D. Misoprostol
27.

DNA analysis of chronic villous biopsy is done in all, except -

A. Hemophilia
B. Duchnne's muscle dystrophy
C. Sickle cell anemia
D. Tay Sach's disease
Answer» E.
28.

In instrumental vaginal delivery:

A. Forceps are used in all cases of breech delivery
B. Full cervical dilatation is the only pre-requisite
C. Ventouse can not be used in rotational occipitotransverse/posterior delivery
D. Forceps may be used if ventouse fails
Answer» E.
29.

Beyond which critical value Shock Index [Heart rate/BP] in pregnancy is considered abnormal?

A. 0.3 - 0.5
B. 0.7 - 0.9
C. 0.9 - 1.1
D. 0.5 - 0.7
Answer» D. 0.5 - 0.7
30.

Amniocentesis done at-

A. 10-14 weeks of pregnancy
B. 14-20 weeks of pregnancy
C. 8-11 weeks of pregnancy
D. 18-20 weeks of pregnancy
Answer» C. 8-11 weeks of pregnancy
31.

A full time primipara comes with bleeding p/v. Next time of management is -

A. p/v examination
B. Conservative management till onset of labour
C. Lower segment caesarean secxtion
D. Examination in OT followed by amniotomy
Answer» E.
32.

A female having 6 weeks ammorrhea presents with ovarian cyst.The proper management is:

A. Ovariotomy at IInd trimestes
B. Immediate ovariotomy
C. Ovariotomy with cesarean
D. Ovariotomy after 24 hour after delivery
Answer» B. Immediate ovariotomy
33.

Lochia in order -

A. Rubra, serosa, alba
B. Serosa, rubra, alba
C. Alba , serosa, rubra
D. Alba, mucosa, serosa
Answer» B. Serosa, rubra, alba
34.

A 50 year old female presents with carcinoma endometrium with deep inguinal lymph node involvement is staged as-

A. Stage II
B. Stage III
C. Stage IV
D. Stage I
Answer» D. Stage I
35.

Mirena is:

A. Progesterone containing IUD
B. Subdermal implant
C. Antiestrogen
D. OCP
Answer» B. Subdermal implant
36.

Pelvic examination is not due in -

A. Placenta previa
B. Contracted pelvis
C. H. mole
D. Ectopic pregnancy
Answer» B. Contracted pelvis
37.

The commonly used frequency range in obstetrical ultrasonography is -

A. 3.5-5 KHz
B. 20-25 KHz
C. 3.5-5 MHz
D. 20-25 MHz
Answer» D. 20-25 MHz
38.

The most important abnormality in the urethra and bladder that leads to stress urinary incontinence is -

A. Loss of estrogen in the postmenopausal period
B. Loss of urethral sphincter
C. Prolapse of uterus
D. Loss of posterior urethrovesical angle
Answer» E.
39.

Hypothyroidism in pregnancy is least likely associated with:

A. Recurrent abortions
B. Polyhydramnios
C. Pregnancy induced hypertension (PIH)
D. Prematurity
Answer» C. Pregnancy induced hypertension (PIH)
40.

Engagement in primigravida occurs at -

A. Begining of labour
B. 36 weeks
C. 34 weeks
D. Second stage of labour
Answer» C. 34 weeks
41.

In sterilization tubectomy,loop of which of the following part is excised:

A. Isthmus
B. Isthmo-ampullary junction
C. Ampulla
D. Infundibulum
Answer» C. Ampulla
42.

All of the following are risk factors for endometrial carcinoma except-

A. Late menopause
B. Multiparity
C. PCOS
D. Hypertension
Answer» C. PCOS
43.

The risk of complex hyperplasia of endometrium with atypia progressive to malignancy in a postmenopausal woman is about -

A. 0.03
B. 0.08
C. 0.15
D. 0.28
Answer» E.
44.

Pap smear for screening cervical cancer is done at:

A. 18 year
B. 21 year
C. 25 year
D. 30 year
Answer» C. 25 year
45.

In which case homologus artificial insemination is used in females -

A. Hormonal disturbances
B. Tubal block
C. Cervical factor
D. All of the above
Answer» D. All of the above
46.

Transmission of HIV from to child is prevented by all of the following except -

A. Vit A prophylaxis to mother
B. Oral zidovudine to mother at 3rd trimester along with oral zidovudine to infant for 6 weeks
C. Stopping breast feeding
D. Vaginal delivery
Answer» E.
47.

A 40 year old woman presents with abnormal cervical cytology on PAP smear suggestive of CIN III (HSIL).The next, best step in management is:

A. Colposcopy and LEEP
B. Hysterectomy
C. Conization
D. Colposcopy and Cryotherapy
Answer» B. Hysterectomy
48.

Primary Amenorrhea with normal ovaries normal external genitalia and normal breasts pubic is seen in:

A. Androgen Insensitivity syndrome
B. Noonan syndrome
C. Mayer - Rokitanski- Kuster- Hauser syndrome
D. Turner's syndrome
Answer» D. Turner's syndrome
49.

Postmenopausal vaginal bleeding does not occur in which of the following Settings?

A. Use of combined OCPs
B. Atrophic vaginitis
C. Endometrial hyperplasia
D. Endometrial cancer
Answer» B. Atrophic vaginitis
50.

A lady presents with 37 weeks pregnancy with features of PET(B.P-170/110,Proteinuria 3+,Retinal hemorrhage).Next step of management would be:

A. Induction
B. Cesarean section
C. Conservative
D. None
Answer» C. Conservative