Explore topic-wise MCQs in Testing Subject.

This section includes 657 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Testing Subject knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

Per rectal(PR)examination done in all except:

A. Ovarian carcinoma staging
B. Cervical carcinoma staging
C. Vaginal atresia
D. Rectocele
Answer» B. Cervical carcinoma staging
2.

True regarding dizygotic except:

A. First baby breech,second vertex is the commonest presentation
B. Increased incidence with maternal age
C. Varies with ethnic group
D. More transmitted through maternal side
Answer» B. Increased incidence with maternal age
3.

The commonest ovarian tumor complicating pregnancy is

A. Fibroma
B. Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma
C. Serous cystadenocarcinoma
D. Dermoid
Answer» E.
4.

Which is not a feature of HELLP syndrome -

A. Thrombocytopenia
B. Eosinophilia
C. Raised liver enzyme
D. Hemolytic anemia
Answer» D. Hemolytic anemia
5.

With regard to premenstrual syndrome which is not the correct statement:

A. Behavioral symptoms are prominent
B. Role of endorphins in the pathophysiology
C. Caffeine administration has been shown to reduce symptoms
D. Mostly due to hormonal imbalance
Answer» D. Mostly due to hormonal imbalance
6.

The true regarding adenomyosis is:

A. Progestins are the agents of choice for medical management
B. More common in nullipara
C. More common in young woman
D. Presents with menrrhagia,dysmenorrhia,and an enlarged uterus
Answer» E.
7.

Single USG is most effective in pregnancy if done at:

A. 9-11 weeks
B. 18-20 weeks
C. 20-24 weeks
D. 32-34 weeks
Answer» C. 20-24 weeks
8.

Which of the following tests is most sensitive for the detection of iron depletion in pregnancy?

A. Serum ferritin
B. Serum iron
C. Serum iron binding capacity
D. Serum transferrin
Answer» B. Serum iron
9.

Malignant ovarian tumor most commonly arises from:

A. Germ cell
B. Surface epithelial cell
C. Sex cord
D. Lipoid cell tumor
Answer» C. Sex cord
10.

The best marker for neural tube defect is-

A. Acetyl glucosonidase
B. Acetyl cholinesterase
C. Alpha fetoprotein
D. Chorionic gonadotrophin
Answer» C. Alpha fetoprotein
11.

Cardiac output is its peak at -

A. 30-40 weeks
B. 40 weeks
C. 36-38 weeks
D. 28-32 weeks
Answer» B. 40 weeks
12.

Fourteen weeks pregnancy with third degree prolapse.Best M/n will be -

A. Sling surgery
B. Foot end elevation
C. Ring Pessary
D. No treatment
Answer» D. No treatment
13.

A 52 year old lady presents with constant leakage of urine and dysuria two weeks after a complicated total abdominal hysterectomy.A diagnosis of Vesicovaginal fistula is suspected.The most important test for the diagnosis is:

A. Cystoscopy
B. IVP
C. Triple Swab Test
D. Urine Culture
Answer» D. Urine Culture
14.

Indication of caesarean section after previous caesarean section is ?

A. Hypertension
B. Type ! placenta previa
C. CPD
D. Multigravida
Answer» D. Multigravida
15.

A 35 years old lady has balanced chromosomal translocation 21/21 the risk of down syndrome in the child is-

A. 0.5
B. 0.7
C. 1
D. 0
Answer» D. 0
16.

Which of the following is seen during heart disease in pregnancy and not during normal pregnancy

A. Engorged neck veins
B. Pedal edema
C. Hypotension
D. Dyspnea
Answer» B. Pedal edema
17.

All are risk factor for vaginal candidiasis except-

A. HIV
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Pregnancy
D. Hypertension
Answer» E.
18.

Early cord clamping is done in all except:

A. Rh incompatibility
B. Severe birth asphyxia
C. IUGR
D. Diabetic mother
Answer» D. Diabetic mother
19.

Non Immune Hydrops Fetalis is caused by:

A. Parvovirus
B. CMV
C. HIV
D. HSV
Answer» B. CMV
20.

Which of the following statements about twinning is true:

A. The frequencies of monozygosity and dizygocity are the same
B. Division after formation of the embryonic disk results in conjoined twins
C. The incidence of monozygotic twinning varies with race
D. Twinning causes no appreciable increase in maternal morbidity and mortality over singleton pregnancies
Answer» C. The incidence of monozygotic twinning varies with race
21.

Aspermia is the term used to describe:

A. Absence of sperm motility.
B. Occurrence of abnormal sperm.
C. Absence of semen.
D. Absence of sperm in ejaculate.
Answer» D. Absence of sperm in ejaculate.
22.

All are true about aneuploidy except

A. 80% of trisomy 18 fetus die in utero
B. 30% of trisomy 21 fetus die in utero
C. Not recalled
D. Occurence of aneuploidy has no relation with the progression of mothers age
Answer» E.
23.

Which of the following strategy has been recommended to reduce the hereditar risk of ovarian cancer in women with BRCA I and BRCA II mutation -

A. Use of oral Contraceptive pills
B. Screening with Transvaginal ultrasound
C. Screening with CA 125
D. Prophylactic oophorectomy
Answer» E.
24.

A 25 year old infertile male underwent semen analysis.Results show:sperm count - 15 million/ml;pH-7.5;volume-2ml;no agglutination is seen.Morphology shows 60% normal and 60% motile sperms.Most likely diagnosis is:

A. Oligospermia
B. Normospermia
C. Aspermia
D. Azoospermia
Answer» B. Normospermia
25.

A woman presents with amenorrhea of 6 weeks duration and lump in the right iliac fossa.Investigation of choice is:

A. CT scan
B. Shielded X-ray
C. USG abdomen
D. Laparoscopy
Answer» D. Laparoscopy
26.

True regarding polycystic ovarian syndrome are all except:

A. Increased FSH
B. Increased DHEA
C. Multiple corpus luteal cysts
D. Increased steroid-binding protein in a patient treated with OCP
Answer» B. Increased DHEA
27.

Which does not cross placenta -

A. Heparin
B. morphine
C. Naloxone
D. Warfarin
Answer» B. morphine
28.

Ectopic pregnancy is most common in

A. Previous h/o recurrent PID
B. Previous h/o Abortion
C. Previous h/o Twin pregnancy
D. Endometriosis
Answer» B. Previous h/o Abortion
29.

Which one of the following biochemical parameters is the most sensitive to detect open spina bifida?

A. Amniotic fluid alpha fetoprotein.
B. Maternal serum alpha fetoprotein.
C. Amniotic fluid glucohexaminase.
D. Amniotic fluid acetyl cholinesterase.
Answer» E.
30.

Presence of hydronephrosis in staging of carcinoma cervix uterii denotes FIGO disease -

A. Stage II-B
B. Stage III-A
C. Stage III-B
D. Stage IV-A
Answer» D. Stage IV-A
31.

A 55-year-old lady presents with abdominal distension, bleeding, pelvic pain and respiratory distress.Clinical examination reveals features of ascitis and CA-125 levels are elevated. The most likely diagnosis:

A. CA- Lung
B. Lymphoma
C. CA- Ovary
D. CA- cervix
Answer» D. CA- cervix
32.

Complete failure of mullerian duct fusion will result in:

A. Subseptate uterus
B. Unicornuate uterus
C. Uterus didelphys
D. Arcuate uterus
Answer» D. Arcuate uterus
33.

Best contraceptive for diabetic female is -

A. Oral pills
B. IUCD
C. Condom by husband
D. Today sponge
Answer» D. Today sponge
34.

Kali Rani,a 20 yrs old young girl ,presents with history of rapidly developing hirsutism and Amenorrhea with change in voice.To establish a diagnosis you would like to proceed with which of the following tests in blood:

A. DHEA
B. 17-OH progesterone
C. LH+FSH estimation
D. Testosterone
Answer» E.
35.

Following renal disorder is associated with worst pregnancy outcome.

A. Systemic lupus erythematous
B. IgA nephropathy
C. Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
D. Scleroderma
Answer» E.
36.

The most common side effect of IUD insertion is:

A. Pelvic infection.
B. Ectopic pregnancy.
C. Bleeding
D. Pain.
Answer» D. Pain.
37.

All of the following are associated with breech presentation at normal full term pregnancy,EXCEPT:

A. Uterine anomaly
B. Cornual implantation of placenta
C. Placenta accreta
D. Fetal malformation
Answer» D. Fetal malformation
38.

According to WHO criteria,the minimum normal sperm count is:

A. 10 million / ml
B. 20 million / ml
C. 40 million / ml
D. 60 million / ml
Answer» C. 40 million / ml
39.

All of the following are features of Mullarian agenesis except one

A. 46xx Karyotype
B. Normal Breast development
C. Absent vagina
D. Ovarian agenesis
Answer» E.
40.

In a case of hydatidiform mole all of the following features are high risk for development of choriocarcinoma EXCEPT

A. Uterus size larger than 16 weeks
B. Serum HCG value more than 1,00,000 m/u/ml.
C. Symptoms of thyrotoxicosis
D. Presence of fetal parts
Answer» E.
41.

Thinnest part of fallopian tube is ?

A. Infudibulum
B. Ampulla
C. Corneal
D. Interstitium
Answer» E.
42.

Absolute contraindication for IUCD includes all of the following except:

A. Suspected pregnancy
B. Undiagnosed vaginal bleeding
C. PID
D. Congenital malformation of uterus
Answer» E.
43.

Most common site for metastasis in choriocarcinoma is:

A. Liver
B. Spine
C. Lungs
D. Brain
Answer» D. Brain
44.

The most common cause of tubal block in India is:

A. Chlamydia infection
B. Gonorrhea infection
C. Bacterial vaginosis
D. Tuberculosis
Answer» E.
45.

Which is the most significant finding in cardiotocography for detection of fetal hypoxia -

A. Late deceleration
B. Variable deceleration
C. Sinusoidal deceleration
D. Early deceleration
Answer» D. Early deceleration
46.

A case of carcinoma cervix is found in altered sensorium and is having hiccups;likely cause is:

A. Septicemia
B. Uremia
C. Raised ICT
D. None of the above
Answer» C. Raised ICT
47.

36 weeks pregnant diabetic female with NST non reactive. what should be done next-

A. Do NST after 1 yr.
B. Proceed to biophysical profile
C. Induction of labour
D. CS
Answer» C. Induction of labour
48.

A lady with 10-12 wks pregnancy develops acute retention of urine.The likely cause is-

A. Retroverted uterus
B. Urinary tract infection
C. Prolapse uterus
D. Fibroid
Answer» B. Urinary tract infection
49.

Which of the following is the best marker for intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy

A. Bile Acids
B. AST and ALT(Transaminases)
C. Alkaline Phosphatase
D. Bilirubin
Answer» B. AST and ALT(Transaminases)
50.

OCP are contraindicated in ?

A. Heart disease
B. Thromboembolism
C. Breast cancer
D. All of the avove
Answer» E.