Explore topic-wise MCQs in Testing Subject.

This section includes 657 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Testing Subject knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

New drug study and development can be done by:

A. Pharmacogenetics
B. Molecular modelling
C. Pharmaco library
D. Neo pharmacy
Answer» B. Molecular modelling
2.

Iron Deficiency Anemia which statement is not true -

A. Latent stage is most common in India
B. Can Be Detected Early By Serum Ferritin Levels
C. Decreased Transferritin Saturation less Than 16%
D. Asymptomatic Clinically But Lab Findings Increased
Answer» E.
3.

An undifferentiated malignant tumour on immunohistochemical stain shows cytoplasmic positivity of most of the tumour cells for cytokeratin.The most probable diagnosis of the tumour is -

A. Lymphoma
B. Sarcoma
C. Malignant melanoma
D. Carcinoma
Answer» E.
4.

McCallum's patch is diagnostic of

A. Infective endocarditis
B. Rheumatic endocarditis
C. Myocardial infarction
D. Tetralogy of Fallot (ToF)
Answer» C. Myocardial infarction
5.

Liquefactive necrosis is typically seen in -

A. Ischemic necrosis of the heart
B. Ischemic necrosis of the brain
C. Ischemic necrosis of the intestine
D. Tuberculosis
Answer» C. Ischemic necrosis of the intestine
6.

The following host tissue responses can be seen in acute infection,except:

A. Margination
B. Granuloma formation
C. Exudation
D. Vasodilation
Answer» C. Exudation
7.

Which is not a 2nd generation antihistamine?

A. Cyclizine
B. Cetrizine
C. Fexofenadine
D. Loratidine
Answer» B. Cetrizine
8.

All are endogenous catecholamines except -

A. Dopamine
B. Dobutamine
C. Epinephrine
D. Norepinephrine
Answer» C. Epinephrine
9.

Tamm Horsfall protein is produced by -

A. Ureter
B. Collecting duct
C. Loop of Henle
D. Distal tubule
Answer» D. Distal tubule
10.

Propanalol is indicated in all of the following conditions except:

A. Varientangina
B. Thyrotoxicosis
C. Hypertension
D. Migraine
Answer» B. Thyrotoxicosis
11.

One of the potent microsomal enzymes inducer drug is

A. Captopril
B. Erythromycin
C. Rifampicin
D. Cimetidine
Answer» D. Cimetidine
12.

Advantages of 3rd generation cephalosporins over 1st and 2nd generation cephalosporins is that they are

A. Beta-lactamase sensitive
B. Not orally administered
C. Effective against Gram +ve bacteria
D. Effective against Gram -ve bacteria
Answer» E.
13.

Partial agonist of opioid receptors:

A. Buprenorphine
B. Morphine
C. Methadone
D. Naloxone
Answer» B. Morphine
14.

In Marfan's syndrome,Aortic aneurysm occurs most commonly in:

A. Ascending aorta
B. Descending aorta
C. Abdominal aorta
D. Arch of aorta
Answer» B. Descending aorta
15.

All the following characteristics are true of Liposarcoma except that it -

A. Is commonly found in the retro-peritoneum
B. Frequently gives rise to embolization in lymphatics
C. Is the most common soft tissue sarcoma
D. Arises very rarely in subcutaneous tissue
Answer» C. Is the most common soft tissue sarcoma
16.

Bacitracin acts on:

A. Nucleic Acid
B. Ribosome
C. Cell Wall
D. Cell Membrane
Answer» D. Cell Membrane
17.

Adverse effects of losartan are all except -

A. Angioedema
B. Cough
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Headache
Answer» C. Hyperkalemia
18.

Misoprostol is a:

A. Prostaglandin antagonist
B. Antiprogestin
C. Prostaglandin E1 analogue
D. Prostaglandin E2 analogue
Answer» D. Prostaglandin E2 analogue
19.

Peripheral neuropathy may occur with the use of all the following except:

A. Vincristine
B. Cisplatine
C. L-Asparaginase
D. Procarbazine
Answer» D. Procarbazine
20.

When a drug is evaluated for its usefulness in controlled conditions, it is termed as a trial signifying:

A. Efficiency
B. Effect modification
C. Efficacy
D. Effectiveness
Answer» D. Effectiveness
21.

Not used in erectile dysfunction ?

A. Vardalafil
B. PGE-2
C. Alprostadil
D. Phenylephrine
Answer» E.
22.

The most common side effect of chronic use of phenothiazines is

A. Akathisia
B. Tardive akinesia
C. Tardive dyskinesia
D. Muscular dystonia
Answer» D. Muscular dystonia
23.

A patient with sinusitis,on terfenadine for a long time,develops cough and URTI.His physician prescribes him erythromycin.The expected side effect is:

A. Cardiac arrhythmia
B. Allergic reaction
C. Low terfenadine level
D. Rashes all over body
Answer» B. Allergic reaction
24.

Which of the following statements is not true about Tacrolimus?

A. Glucose intolerance is a well Recognized side effect
B. It can be safely administered with any Nephrotoxic drug
C. It is macrolide Antibiotic
D. It is indicated for the prophylaxis of organ transplant rejection
Answer» C. It is macrolide Antibiotic
25.

Which of the following is TRUE for morphine:

A. Tolerate to all its actions except sedation and euphoria
B. Tolerate to all side effects except conpitation and miosis
C. It is a peripherally acting analgesic
D. It has no abuse potential
Answer» C. It is a peripherally acting analgesic
26.

All are true regarding antiarrhythmic,except:

A. Verapamil belongs to second group drugs
B. It is drug of choice for PSVT
C. It is contraindicated in complete heart block
D. It depresses heart rate
Answer» B. It is drug of choice for PSVT
27.

Pneumopathy is a side effect of all, except -

A. Alpha methyldopa
B. Busulphan
C. Melphalan
D. Nitrofurantoin
Answer» B. Busulphan
28.

Amphoterecin B toxicity can be lowered by

A. Decreasing the dose
B. Giving it with Glucose
C. Combining with flucytosine
D. Using Liposomal delivery systems
Answer» E.
29.

Which non depolarizing agent is a ganglion blocker -

A. Atracurium
B. Pancuronium
C. D-TC
D. Gallamine
Answer» D. Gallamine
30.

RPGN occurs in A/E -

A. SLE
B. Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis
C. Diabetic nephropathy
D. Good pastures syndromes
Answer» D. Good pastures syndromes
31.

Macrophages are found in -

A. Phase of scar formation
B. Phase of repair
C. Late phase of inflammation
D. Early phase of inflammation
Answer» D. Early phase of inflammation
32.

A mylocardial infarct showing early granulation tissue has most likely occured

A. Within 24 hrs
B. Less than 1 hours
C. Within 1 month
D. Within 1 week
Answer» E.
33.

Which component of HBV causes glomerul-onephritis:

A. HbeAg
B. HBcAg
C. HBsAg
D. Anti HBsAg antibody
Answer» D. Anti HBsAg antibody
34.

Which of these is true regarding CML:

A. Size of splenomegaly indicates prognosis
B. Phagocytic activity of WBC is reduced
C. Sudan black stain is specific for myeloblast
D. Myeloblast,granuloblast and lymphoblast are PH chromosome +ve.
Answer» B. Phagocytic activity of WBC is reduced
35.

Retrovirus is used for gene therapy because-

A. They have sequences common to human genome
B. They integrate rapidly into human genome
C. Economically viable
D. Easy to perform in labs
Answer» C. Economically viable
36.

Fasciculations are caused by -

A. Vecuronium
B. Suxamethonium
C. Atracurium
D. Pancuronium
Answer» C. Atracurium
37.

Most common benign tumour of liver is -

A. Papilloma
B. Hepatic adenoma
C. Amoeboma
D. Hemangioma
Answer» E.
38.

Drug used in treatment of carcinoma thyroid is -

A. Doxorubicin
B. 5-Flurouracil
C. Methotrexate
D. Vinblastine
Answer» B. 5-Flurouracil
39.

All are inotropic agents, except -

A. Isoprenaline
B. Amiodarone
C. Dopamine
D. Amrinone
Answer» C. Dopamine
40.

BAL is used for chelation of all except

A. Lead
B. Mercury
C. Cadmium
D. Arsenic
Answer» D. Arsenic
41.

Deficiency of this hemophilic factor during early pregnancy will result in neural tube defect -

A. Folic acid
B. Iron
C. Cynocobalamine
D. Antioxidants
Answer» B. Iron
42.

Imatinib used in CML acts by -

A. Blocking the action of P-glycoprotein
B. Inhibiting Bcr/abl translocation via tyrosine kinase
C. C-kit kinase inhibition
D. Competitive inhibition of ATP binding site of Abl kinase
Answer» E.
43.

Which of the following statements is true about ketorolac ?

A. It has potent anti inflammatory activity
B. It's analgesic efficacy is equal to morphine in post operative pain
C. Is used as preanesthetic medication
D. It interacts with opioid receptors
Answer» C. Is used as preanesthetic medication
44.

Regarding adverse reaction,all are correct,EXCEPT:

A. Methysergide - Retroperitoneal fibrosis
B. Rifampicin - Optic neuritis
C. Saralasin - AT2 receptor antagonist
D. Ethambutol - Retrobulbar neuritis
Answer» C. Saralasin - AT2 receptor antagonist
45.

Which of the following cephalosporins does not need dose modifications even in presence of raised levels of GFR

A. Cefoperazone
B. Cefipime
C. Cefuroxime
D. Cefotaxim
Answer» B. Cefipime
46.

Haemorrhage secondary to human administration can be corrected by administration of:

A. Whole blood
B. Vitamin K
C. Ascorbic acid
D. Protamine
Answer» E.
47.

In drug metabolism, hepatic cytochrome P450 system is responsible for -

A. Phase I reactions (hydrolysis, oxidation, reduction, etc.) only
B. Phase II reactions (conjugation, synthesis, etc.) only
C. Both phase I and phase II reactions
D. Converting hydrophilic metabolites to lipophilic metabolites
Answer» B. Phase II reactions (conjugation, synthesis, etc.) only
48.

Which of the following drug is used in sickle cell anemia-

A. Paclitaxel
B. Bleomycin
C. Hydroxyurea
D. Carmustine
Answer» D. Carmustine
49.

Side effects of a drug arise due to the interactions of the drug to molecules other than the target.These effects of a drug can be minimized by its high -

A. Specificity
B. Affinity
C. Solubility
D. Hydrophobicity
Answer» B. Affinity
50.

Cerebellar toxicity is seen with

A. Cytarabine
B. Cisplatin
C. Actinomycin D
D. Bleomycine
Answer» B. Cisplatin