Explore topic-wise MCQs in Testing Subject.

This section includes 657 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Testing Subject knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

True about calvulonic acid is ?

A. Beta lactamase inhibitors
B. Extended spectrum penicillin
C. Gram negative bacteria
D. Plasmid inhibitors
Answer» B. Extended spectrum penicillin
2.

Ipratropium bromide is contraindicated in:

A. Urinary retention
B. Asthma
C. Peptic ulcer
D. Hypertension
Answer» B. Asthma
3.

Which of the following is the most characteristic feature of Adult Respiratory Distress Syndrome(ARDS):

A. Surfactant Deficiency
B. Hypocapnia
C. Diffuse Alveolar Damage
D. Hypoxemia and Hypoxia
Answer» D. Hypoxemia and Hypoxia
4.

Which of the following is the most characteristic ultrastructural feature of paraganglioma on electron microscopy

A. Frequent mitoses
B. Dense core neuroendocrine granules
C. Shrunken mitochondria
D. Large Golgi apparatus
Answer» C. Shrunken mitochondria
5.

In an ablated animal, myeloid series cells are injected.Which of the following is seen after incubation period -

A. RBC
B. Fibroblast
C. T lypphocytes
D. Hematopoetic stem cell
Answer» B. Fibroblast
6.

Characteristic pathological feature of Parkinson's disease is presence of:

A. Neuro fibrillary tangle
B. Negri-bodies
C. Lewy bodies
D. Babes nodule
Answer» D. Babes nodule
7.

Lady 30 years painless supraclavicular Lymph node enlargement Growth (+). Has CD 15 and CD 30 positive diagnosis is -

A. Nodular Sclerosis
B. Lymphocyte Pre Dominant
C. Diffuse Large B-cell Lymphoma
D. Lymphocyte Depleted
Answer» B. Lymphocyte Pre Dominant
8.

N-MYC amplification is associated with which tumor ?

A. Burkitt lymphoma
B. Squamous cell carcinoma lung
C. Astrocytoma
D. Neuroblastoma
Answer» E.
9.

Which characteristic feature is seen in the kidney in Malignant hypertension

A. Hyaline necrosis
B. Fibrinoid necrosis
C. Medial wall hyperplasia
D. Micro-aneurysm
Answer» C. Medial wall hyperplasia
10.

Ferruginous bodies are seen in ?

A. Sarcoidosis
B. Silicosis
C. Asbestosis
D. Coal worker's pneumoconiosis
Answer» C. Asbestosis
11.

In Alzheimer's disease the likely site of lesion is the:

A. Basal ganglia
B. Parital lobes of cerebrum
C. Basal nucleus of Mayernet
D. Pons
Answer» D. Pons
12.

Factor present in the final common terminal complement pathway is:

A. C4
B. C3
C. C5
D. Protein B
Answer» D. Protein B
13.

Why fetal cells continue to divide but terminally differentiated adult cells do not divide -

A. Proteinase is absen in fetus
B. Absence of CD kinase
C. There are many cyclin inhibitors which prevent cell to enter into S phase in adult
D. Phosphatase absent in fetal cells
Answer» D. Phosphatase absent in fetal cells
14.

A patient with HB-6 gm, TLC 12000, PLATELET - 60000, MCV 12FL, what is the diagnosis -

A. Megaloblastic anemia
B. Aplastic anemia
C. Myelofibrosis
D. PNH
Answer» B. Aplastic anemia
15.

Inflammatory bowel disease with transmural and skip lesions is ?

A. Corhn's disease
B. Ulcerative colitis
C. Shigella infection
D. Clostridium infection
Answer» B. Ulcerative colitis
16.

In acute inflammation due to contraction of endothelial cell cytoskeleton, which of the following results -

A. Ealry transient increase
B. Delayed transient increase in permeability
C. Ealry permanenet increase
D. Delayed permanenet increase
Answer» B. Delayed transient increase in permeability
17.

In post-hepatic jaundice,the concentation of conjugated bilirubin in the blood is higher than that of unconjugated bilirubin because:

A. There is an increased rate of destruction of red blood cells
B. The unconjugated bilirubin is trapped by the bile stone produced in the bile duct
C. The conjugation process of bilirubin in liver remains operative without any interference
D. The UDP-glulcuronoyltransferase activity is increased manifold in obstructive jaundice
Answer» D. The UDP-glulcuronoyltransferase activity is increased manifold in obstructive jaundice
18.

Firm warty vegetations along the line of apposition of heart valves is present in -

A. NBTE
B. Bacterial endocarditis
C. Rheumatic heart disease
D. Libman Sach's endocarditis
Answer» D. Libman Sach's endocarditis
19.

Amongst the following,the most common site for Leiomyoma is

A. Stomach
B. Small Intestine
C. Duodenum
D. Colon
Answer» B. Small Intestine
20.

Drugs which produce gynecomastia are all except -

A. Cimetedine
B. Digoxin
C. Cortisol
D. Spironolactone
Answer» D. Spironolactone
21.

Filgrastim is used in treatment of:

A. Anemia
B. Neutropenia
C. Malaria
D. Filaria
Answer» C. Malaria
22.

Test for myasthenia gravis is

A. Succinylcholine
B. Edrophonium
C. Atracurium
D. d-Tubocurarine
Answer» C. Atracurium
23.

All are used in prophylaxis of migraine except:

A. Propranolol
B. Sodium valproate
C. Clonidine
D. Sumatriptan
Answer» E.
24.

All of the following statements regarding bioavailability of a drug are true except:

A. Bioavailability of an orally administered drug can be calculated by comparing the Area Under Curve (o-alpha) after oral and intravenous (IV) administration
B. It is the proportion (fraction) of unchanged drug that reaches the systemic circulation
C. Bioavailability can be determined from plasma concentration or urinary excretion data
D. Low oral bioavailability always and necessarily mean poor absorption
Answer» E.
25.

ADH acts on

A. Proximal convoluted tubule
B. Distal convoluted tubule
C. Loop of Henle
D. Collecting ducts
Answer» E.
26.

The antithyroid drug preferred for use during pregnancy and lactation is -

A. Propylthiouracil
B. Methimazole
C. Carbimazole
D. Radioactive iodine
Answer» B. Methimazole
27.

What is true about Lovastatin -`

A. Inhibits HMG CoA synthesis
B. Inhibits HMG CoA reductase
C. Myositis may result from its prolonged use
D. Decrease synthesis of cholesterol and causes lenticular opacity
Answer» C. Myositis may result from its prolonged use
28.

All the following drugs are reversible inhibitors of COX except -

A. Diclofenac
B. Ibuprofen
C. Aspirin
D. Indomethacin
Answer» D. Indomethacin
29.

Nephrotoxicity is a side effect of one of the following immuno-suppressives -

A. Sirolimus
B. Tacrolimus
C. Mycophenolate mofetil
D. Azathioprine
Answer» C. Mycophenolate mofetil
30.

Quinidine is a :

A. Ca++ channel-blocker
B. Cl- channel-blocker
C. Na+ channel-blocker
D. K+ channel-blocker
Answer» D. K+ channel-blocker
31.

Alkalinization of urine is done during administration of which of the following chemotherapeutic drugs:

A. Methotrexate
B. Ara-C
C. Ifosafamide
D. Cisplatin
Answer» B. Ara-C
32.

Frusemide causes all except:

A. Hyperglycemia
B. Hypomagnesemia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Acidosis
Answer» E.
33.

Drug which increases Nitrix Oxide are all except -

A. Sodium Nitroprusside
B. Fenoldopam
C. Glycerine trinitrate
D. Hydralazine
Answer» C. Glycerine trinitrate
34.

Lid retraction caused by -

A. Apraclonidine
B. Brimonidine
C. Latanoprost
D. Travaprost
Answer» B. Brimonidine
35.

All the following are Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulators(SERMs) except -

A. Clomiphene citrate
B. Tamoxifen citrate
C. Raloxifene
D. Ormeloxifene
Answer» B. Tamoxifen citrate
36.

Antagonist of Benzodiazepine is -

A. Nalorphine
B. Carbamazepine
C. Naloxone
D. Flumazenil
Answer» E.
37.

Drug administered sublingually due to increased hepatic first pass metabolism:

A. Stanozolol
B. Tamoxifen
C. Diethyl stilbestrol
D. Natural oestrogen
Answer» B. Tamoxifen
38.

The drug of choice for bacterial vaginosis is

A. Doxycycline
B. Metronidazole
C. Penicillin
D. Fluconazole
Answer» C. Penicillin
39.

Gynaecomastia may be associated with administration of:

A. Cimetidine
B. Ranitidine
C. Omeprazole
D. Terfenadine
Answer» B. Ranitidine
40.

Beta blocker that can be used in renal failure is all except:

A. Pindolol
B. Propranolol
C. Oxyprenolol
D. Sotalol
Answer» E.
41.

Drug causing hypercoagulability is:

A. L asparginase
B. Busulfan
C. Melphalan
D. 5 FU
Answer» B. Busulfan
42.

The drug inactivated in plasma by spontaneous non-enzymatic degradation is -

A. Atracurium
B. Vecuronium
C. Pipecuronium
D. Pancuronium
Answer» B. Vecuronium
43.

A patient presents with nephrotic syndrome and hypoalbuminemia.Protein binding of which drug is not affected:

A. Tolbutamide
B. Morphine
C. Diazepam
D. Valproate
Answer» C. Diazepam
44.

The mechanism of action of local anesthetics is that they act on Na+channels in their:

A. Activated state
B. Inactivated state
C. Resting state
D. Any state
Answer» C. Resting state
45.

Which of the following does NOT reduce preload on heart -

A. Glyceryl trinitrate
B. Isosorbid dinitrate
C. ACE inhibitor
D. Hydralazine
Answer» E.
46.

Saquinavir acts as an anti-HIV agent by acting as:

A. Reverse transcriptase inhibitor
B. Inhibitis CD4 + cell proliferation
C. Inhibit binding of virus particle to cell
D. Protease inhibitor
Answer» E.
47.

Which of the following statements about Mycophenolate Mofetil is not true

A. It is a prodrug and converted to Mycophenolic acid
B. Is not used with Azathioprine
C. Most common adverse effect is Nephrotoxicity
D. Used in Transplant Rejection
Answer» D. Used in Transplant Rejection
48.

FK-506 is a -

A. Non depolarising muscle relaxant
B. Opioid analgesic
C. It is a macrolide antibiotic
D. Immunoglobulin antibody
Answer» D. Immunoglobulin antibody
49.

DENOSUMBA a monoclonal antibody against RANKL receptor is used in treatment of -

A. Osteoarthritis
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. SLE
D. Osteoporosis
Answer» E.
50.

Bone marrow aplasia is seen with all except -

A. Alpha methyl hydantoin
B. Phenylbutazone
C. Methicillin
D. Chloramphenicol
Answer» D. Chloramphenicol