Explore topic-wise MCQs in Testing Subject.

This section includes 657 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Testing Subject knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

N-acetyl Cysteine is an antidote for poisoning due to

A. Paracetamol
B. Dhatura
C. Aspirin
D. Propranolol
Answer» B. Dhatura
2.

A 35 yr. old lady with chronic backache. On X ray she had a D12 collapse.But Intervertebral disc is maintained.All are possible except:

A. Metastasis
B. Tuberculosis
C. Multiple myeloma
D. Osteoporosis
Answer» C. Multiple myeloma
3.

A 18 yrs old boy was playing football,when he suddenly twisted his knee on the ankle and he fell down.He got up after 10 minutes and again started playing,but next day his knee was swollen and he could not move it.The most probable cause is:

A. Medial meniscus tear
B. Anterior cruciate ligament tear
C. Medial collateral ligament injury
D. Posterior cruciate ligament injury
Answer» B. Anterior cruciate ligament tear
4.

A patient comes to the emergency department after alcohol binge previous night and sleeping on arm chair.In the morning he is unable to move his hand and diagnosis of ulnar nerve palsy is made.What is the next line of management ?

A. Wait and watch
B. Kunckle Bender Splint
C. Immediately operate and explore the nerve
D. Do EMG study after 2 days
Answer» C. Immediately operate and explore the nerve
5.

A patient met with Road Traffic accident with injury to the left knee.Dial test was positive.What could be the cause ?

A. Medical Collateral Ligament Injury
B. Posterolateral Corner Injury
C. Lateral Meniscus Tear
D. Medial Meniscal Injury
Answer» C. Lateral Meniscus Tear
6.

Following anterior dislocation of the shoulder,a pt develops weakness of flexion at elbow and lack of sensation over the lateral aspect forearm;nerve injured is:

A. Musculocutaneous nerve
B. Radial nerve
C. Ulnar nerve
D. Axillary nerve
Answer» B. Radial nerve
7.

Characteristic subperiosteal bone resorption in Hyperparathyroidism is best seen at ?

A. Rib margins
B. Medial margin of proximal humerus
C. Radial border of middle phalanx
D. Lamina dura
Answer» D. Lamina dura
8.

Analgesic 100 times more potent than morphine is

A. Pethidine
B. Fentanyl
C. Methadone
D. Naloxone
Answer» C. Methadone
9.

Fastest acting anti-thyroid drug is ?

A. Potassium iodine
B. Propylthiouracil
C. Carbimazole
D. Cholestyramine
Answer» B. Propylthiouracil
10.

Gout is NOT caused by which of the following -

A. Chlorthalidone
B. Sulfinpyrazone
C. Pyrazinamide
D. Aspirin
Answer» C. Pyrazinamide
11.

Aerosol spread leading to epidemics

A. Hemophilus
B. Legionella
C. Mycoplasma
D. Influenza
Answer» E.
12.

ACE inhibitors should not be used with ?

A. Amilorides
B. Calcium channel blockers
C. Chlorthialidone
D. Spironolactone
Answer» B. Calcium channel blockers
13.

Which antiarrhythmic is not class IC agent -

A. Tocainide
B. Propafenone
C. Encainide
D. Flecainide
Answer» B. Propafenone
14.

Which of the following antitubercular drugs do not need to be adjusted in presence of renal failure?

A. Rifampicin
B. INH
C. Ethambutol
D. Pyrazinamide
Answer» B. INH
15.

In metabolism of xenobiotics all of the following reactions occur in phase one, except

A. Reduction
B. Oxidation
C. Hydrolysis
D. Conjugation
Answer» E.
16.

Which of the following is the treatment of choice for cryptococcal meningitis?

A. Fluconazole
B. Iatraconazole
C. Fluocytosine
D. Amphotericine B
Answer» E.
17.

Prolactin secretion will be inhibited by:

A. haloperidol
B. GABA(Gama aminobutyric acid)
C. Neurophysin
D. Use of ionotrope like dopamine
Answer» E.
18.

Which drug has wide therapeutic index -

A. Digoxin
B. Lithium
C. Phenytoin
D. Penicillin
Answer» E.
19.

IgA nephropathy can occur in -

A. Membranoproliferative GN
B. Mininal change GN
C. Mesangioproliferative GN
D. RPGN type I
Answer» D. RPGN type I
20.

Which of the following H1 blockers is non sedating ?

A. Diphenhydramine
B. Chlorpheniramine
C. Loratidine
D. Promethazine
Answer» D. Promethazine
21.

True about Penicillin G

A. It is has broad spectrum activity
B. It can be given orally
C. Probenecid given along with PnG decrease its direction of action
D. Used for treatment rate bite fever
Answer» E.
22.

Which of the following drug acts as a HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor:

A. Clofibrate
B. Gemfibrozil
C. Probucol
D. Lovastain
Answer» E.
23.

In a patient of known prolonged congenital QT syndrome and intermittent Torsade-de-pointes,which of the following should be prescribed?

A. Magnesium sulphate
B. Metoprolol
C. Cardiac pacing
D. Isoprendine
Answer» C. Cardiac pacing
24.

Pulmonary fibrosis is a side effect of all, except -

A. Busulphan
B. Phenytoin
C. Sulphonamide
D. D-penicillamine
Answer» C. Sulphonamide
25.

The following are true of heparin EXCEPT that -

A. It inhibits plasma antithrombin III
B. It is administered parenterally
C. It is safe during pregnancy
D. Bleeding occurs in its overdose
Answer» B. It is administered parenterally
26.

Induction of treatment is serious fungal infection

A. IV amphotericin B
B. Ketoconazole
C. 5-Flucytosine
D. Fluconazole
Answer» B. Ketoconazole
27.

Culture from leg ulcer of a hospital-ridden patient shows growth of Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus (MRSA).Which of the following drugs is least likely to be effective:

A. Cotrimaxazole
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Vancomycin
D. Cefaclor
Answer» E.
28.

A patient with Hodgkin's lymphoma is having a single cervical lymphnode.Biopsy showed lymphocyte predominant variant.Which of the following is the treatment of choice:

A. Chemotherapy with Radiotherapy
B. Chemotherapy only
C. Radiotherapy
D. No treatment needed
Answer» B. Chemotherapy only
29.

Flumazenil, false is -

A. Given intravenously
B. Acts on GABAa receptor
C. It is specific antagonist of BZD
D. It may be used in barbiturate poisoning as it acts on the same receptor i.e. GABAa
Answer» D. It may be used in barbiturate poisoning as it acts on the same receptor i.e. GABAa
30.

INH is conjugated by:

A. Sulphation
B. Glycine
C. Glutamate
D. Acetic acid
Answer» E.
31.

The Nitrate which does not undergo first pass metabolism is:

A. Pentaerythritol tetranitrate
B. Isosorbide dinitrate
C. Isosorbide mononitrate
D. Nitroglycerine
Answer» D. Nitroglycerine
32.

Regarding COX-2 which of the following is its function -

A. Cell proliferation
B. Cell adhesion
C. Cell differentiation
D. Cell migration
Answer» B. Cell adhesion
33.

Phase II in a clinical drug trial is done to assess:

A. Maximal lathal dose
B. Toxicity
C. Therapeutic efficacy
D. Maximal tolerated dose
Answer» D. Maximal tolerated dose
34.

All of the following diuretics are associated with increased risk of drug induced urinary calculi formation,except:

A. Acetazolamide
B. Triamterene
C. Hypochlorthiazide
D. Furosemide
Answer» D. Furosemide
35.

Non-sedating antidepressant is -

A. Fluoxetine
B. Mianserin
C. Amoxepine
D. Imipramine
Answer» B. Mianserin
36.

Antiulcer drug is:

A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Pyrimethamine
C. Pirenzepine
D. Methylcellulose
Answer» D. Methylcellulose
37.

All of the following statements about thalidomide are true,Except

A. Used for new and relapsed cases of Multiple myeloma
B. Most common side effects are diarrhea and euphoria
C. It has been re introduced for its activity in ENL
D. Developed as antiemetic in pregnency but withdrawn because of phacomelia
Answer» C. It has been re introduced for its activity in ENL
38.

An elderly hypertensive has diabetes mellitus and bilateral renal artery stenosis.The best management is:

A. Enalapril
B. Verapamil
C. Beta blockers
D. Thiazides
Answer» C. Beta blockers
39.

kimmelstiel wilson lesion is characteristic of ?

A. Diabetic nephropathy
B. Hypertensive nephropathy
C. HIV nephropathy
D. Analgesic nephropathy
Answer» B. Hypertensive nephropathy
40.

Which is the most common cytogenetic abnormality in adult myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS)?

A. 5 q-
B. Monosmy 7
C. Trisomy 8
D. 20q-
Answer» C. Trisomy 8
41.

True about first order kinetics is -

A. A constant amount of eliminated in unit time
B. The hal-time increases with an increase in dose
C. The rate of elimination is constant
D. The rate of elimination is proportional to the plasma concentration
Answer» E.
42.

Efficacy of a drug refers to ?

A. Affinity of drug to bind to receptors
B. Affinity of drug that binds to receptors and activates it
C. Dose that requires to produce response
D. Maximum response a drug can produce
Answer» E.
43.

Dose of Ketotifen is -

A. 1-2 mg/d OD
B. 10 mg I/V
C. 5-10 mg BD ORAL
D. None of the above
Answer» E.
44.

Anticoagulant effect of warfarin is increased by all of the following except -

A. Phytonadione
B. Cimetidine
C. Phenylbutazone
D. Amiodarone
Answer» B. Cimetidine
45.

Drug, which is contraindicated in pregnancy is -

A. Tetracycline
B. Erythromycin
C. Ampicillin
D. Chloroquine
Answer» B. Erythromycin
46.

Tumor marker CA 15-3 is associated with ?

A. Ovary
B. Breast
C. Prostate
D. Kidney
Answer» C. Prostate
47.

Haemorrhagic infarct may be seen in:

A. Lung
B. Brain
C. Heart
D. Spleen
Answer» B. Brain
48.

All are predisposing factors of Deep Vain thrombosis, except -

A. Cushing's syndrome
B. Hip surgery
C. Lower limb trauma
D. Subungual melanoma
Answer» E.
49.

Which of the following benzodiazepine is most conveniently used through IM route:

A. Diazepam
B. Lorazepam
C. Nitrazepam
D. Oxazepam
Answer» C. Nitrazepam
50.

Inverse agonist of benzodiazepine receptor is:

A. Flumazenil.
B. Phenobarbitone.
C. Gabapentin.
D. Beta-carboline.
Answer» E.