Explore topic-wise MCQs in Testing Subject.

This section includes 657 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Testing Subject knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

All are true about Tabes dorsalis:

A. Ataxia
B. Bladder disturbance
C. Plantar extensor
D. Lancinating pain
Answer» D. Lancinating pain
2.

Serum iron is raised in -

A. Polycythemia vera ruba
B. Thalassemia major
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Chronic renal failure
Answer» C. Rheumatoid arthritis
3.

The following are features of adult respiratory distress syndrome except -

A. Hypoxia
B. Hypercapnia
C. Pulmonary oedema
D. Stiff lungs
Answer» C. Pulmonary oedema
4.

In pseudogout crystals are -

A. Calcium pyrophosphate
B. Sodium urate
C. Potassium urate
D. Sodium pyrophosphate
Answer» B. Sodium urate
5.

A 75 year old man presented with new onset of focal seizures.He has normal renal function.What is the preferred drug to be given ?

A. Oxcarbazepine
B. Levetiracetam
C. Valproate
D. Gabapentin
Answer» B. Levetiracetam
6.

Most common causative organism for ascending cholangitis is -

A. Streptococcus
B. Proteus
C. E.coli
D. Anaerobes
Answer» D. Anaerobes
7.

True about Diffuse Axonal Injury (DAI) are all, Except:

A. Predominant white matter haemorrhages,in basal ganglion and corpus callosum
B. Caused by shearing force
C. Most common at junction of grey and white matter
D. Increased Intracranial tension is seen in all cases
Answer» E.
8.

Ebstein's anomaly is associated with -

A. Tricuspid atresia
B. Coarctation of aorta
C. Cardiomyopathy
D. Right ventricular hypertrophy
Answer» B. Coarctation of aorta
9.

Which of the following excludes a diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome -

A. Abdominal pain
B. Constipation
C. Dyspepsia
D. None of the above
Answer» E.
10.

Xylose absorption test are good screening test for -

A. Fat absorption
B. Pernicious anemia
C. Carbohydrate absorption
D. Amino acid absorption
Answer» D. Amino acid absorption
11.

Adrenal insufficiency causes all except -

A. Low blood pressure
B. Increased protein protein breakdown
C. Increase sodium potassium ratio
D. Decrease in ECF
Answer» D. Decrease in ECF
12.

What percent of gouty individuals have nephrolithiasis -

A. 10 - 20 %
B. 30 - 40 %
C. 2 - 5 %
D. 50 - 60 %
Answer» B. 30 - 40 %
13.

All these can cause neuropathies with predominant motor involvement except:

A. Lead intoxication
B. Arsenic intoxication
C. Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy
D. Acute intermittent porphyria
Answer» C. Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy
14.

The one organism which may responsible for coronary artery disease -

A. Chlamydia
B. Klebsiella
C. E.coli
D. Mycoplasma
Answer» B. Klebsiella
15.

Tuberculosis pleural effusion is characterized by all, except -

A. LDH>60% of serum LDH
B. Increased mesothelial cells
C. Hemorrhagic fluid
D. Increased Deaminase
Answer» C. Hemorrhagic fluid
16.

A hemophilic patient is going to undergo a tooth extraction under monitored anaesthetic care.Which of the following is not true for this situation:

A. Factor 8 cryoprecipitate may be needed
B. HIV screening should be done for all cases
C. Dental extraction should be done under General anaesthesia
D. The dose of lignocaine is same as their normal counterparts
Answer» D. The dose of lignocaine is same as their normal counterparts
17.

Best confirmatory serological test for syphilis is ?

A. VDRL
B. MHA-TP
C. TPHA
D. FTA-ABS
Answer» E.
18.

CCF is associated with Increase in all of the following except:

A. Right atrial mean pressure
B. Serum sodium
C. Serum urea
D. Serum norepinephrine
Answer» C. Serum urea
19.

Kasab, 25 yrs, presented with fever,cough,expectoration and breathlessness of two months duration.CECT of the chest showed bilateral upper lobe fibrotic lesions and mediastinum had enlarged necrotic nodes with peripheral rim enhancement.Which one is the most probable diagnosis?

A. Tuberculosis
B. Sarcoidosis
C. Silicosis
D. Lymphoma
Answer» B. Sarcoidosis
20.

A 50 year old male came to emergency department with complaints of unilateral headache, diplopia and difficulty in chewing food.On evaluation, MRI was normal, ESR was persistently high.The most appropriate drug of treatment -

A. Aspirin
B. Caxibs
C. Prednisolone
D. Sodium valproate
Answer» D. Sodium valproate
21.

Psychomotor epilepsy is characterised by all of the following except -

A. Trance lihe episodes
B. Confusion
C. Akinetic attacks
D. Mood changes
Answer» D. Mood changes
22.

Features of fibrocystic disease include all except -

A. Meconium ileus
B. Obstructive emphysema
C. Pancreatic insufficiency
D. Decreased Na and Cl in sweat
Answer» E.
23.

Splenectomy is not useful in which conditions?

A. Porphyria.
B. Herediatary spherocytosis.
C. Sickle cell disease with large spleen.
D. Thalassemia.
Answer» B. Herediatary spherocytosis.
24.

Which is not seen in cogenital spherocytosis -

A. Improvement on splenectomy
B. Positive direct Coomb's test
C. Increased osmotic fragility
D. Leg ulcers
Answer» C. Increased osmotic fragility
25.

Ipsilateral 3rd nerve palsy with contralateral haemiplegia is known as -

A. Millard Gobbler syndrome
B. Weber's syndrome
C. Foville syndrome
D. Bendicts syndrome
Answer» C. Foville syndrome
26.

The normal upper limit of Jugular venous pressure above the sternal angle is -

A. 9 cm
B. 8 cm
C. 6 cm
D. 4 cm
Answer» E.
27.

Drug of choice for porphylaxis of meningococcal meningitis for contacts is:

A. Rifampicin
B. Penicillin
C. Erythromycin
D. Cephalosporins
Answer» B. Penicillin
28.

Budd-Chiari syndrome occurs in -

A. Antithrombin deficiency
B. Protein C deficiency
C. Oral contraceptive use
D. All of the above
Answer» E.
29.

Not a feature of infective endocarditis is -

A. Myocardial abscess
B. Vegetations along cusps
C. Thrombus in left atria
D. Perforation of cusp
Answer» D. Perforation of cusp
30.

Which of the following is the right choice of treatment for portosystemic encephalopathy ?

A. Diuretics
B. High protein diet
C. Emergency portosystemic shunt surgery
D. Lactulose
Answer» E.
31.

Diagnostic tests for H.pylori are A/E-

A. Gastric biopsy and Warthin-starry stain
B. SAFA test
C. Urea-breath test
D. Rapid urease test
Answer» C. Urea-breath test
32.

The following set of findings is seen in DIVC:

A. Increased fibrinogen,increased antithrombin III,increased thrombin-antithrombin III complexes
B. Increased FDP,decreased PT,increased antithrombin III
C. Increased FDP,prolonged PT,increased thrombin-antithrombin complexes
D. Increased FDP,prolonged PT,reduced Platlets
Answer» E.
33.

Nutritional and genetic forms of osesteomalacia differs from Renal osteodystropy in having:

A. Hypophostaemia
B. Hyerphosphatema
C. Hypocalcaemia
D. Hypercalcaemia
Answer» C. Hypocalcaemia
34.

Haemorrhagic pericarditis occurs in all of the following conditions except:

A. Transmural myocardial infarction
B. Dissecting aneurysm of aorta
C. Metastatic disease pericardium
D. Constrictive pericarditis
Answer» E.
35.

All the following are true about Chronic Obstructive lung disease except

A. Decreased FeV1
B. Decreased MEFR
C. Increased RV
D. Decreased diffusion capacity
Answer» E.
36.

Most common symptoms of pulmonary embolism -

A. Chest pain
B. Dyspnoea
C. Haemoptysis
D. Cough
Answer» C. Haemoptysis
37.

Anti Phospholipid Syndrome (APS) is associated with A/E

A. Venous thrombosis
B. Pulmonary hypertension
C. Pancytopenia
D. Recurrent abortions
Answer» D. Recurrent abortions
38.

Antidote for benzodiazepine poisoning is -

A. Atropine
B. Glucacon
C. Flumazenil
D. Naloxone
Answer» D. Naloxone
39.

Normal PCWP with pulmonary oedema is seen in -

A. Left atrial myxoma
B. High altitude
C. Pulmonary vein obstruction
D. Pulmonary artery obstruction
Answer» C. Pulmonary vein obstruction
40.

Aortic Regurgitation is not seen in:

A. Acute myocardial infarction
B. Infective endocarditis
C. Rheumatic heart disease
D. Marfan's syndrome
Answer» B. Infective endocarditis
41.

A young male patients presents with LDL 600 mg/dl, triglycerides 140 mg/dl.What would be the most likely on physical examination ?

A. Tendon xanthoma
B. Planar xanthoma
C. Lipemia retinalis
D. Tuberoeruptive xanthoma
Answer» B. Planar xanthoma
42.

All of the following are seen in MEN 2b except -

A. Hyperparathyroidism
B. Neuromas
C. Medullary carcinoma
D. Pheochromocytoma
Answer» B. Neuromas
43.

Which of the following is not a cause of acute tubular necrosis?

A. Severe cursh injury in the foot
B. Rupture of aortic aneurysm
C. Severe-bacterial-infection
D. Massive burn
Answer» C. Severe-bacterial-infection
44.

A 2 year old boy presents with fever for 3 days which responded to administration to paracetamol.Three days later he developed acute renal failure, marked acidosis and encephalopathy.His urine showed plenty of oxalate crystals.The blood anion gap and osmolal gap were increased.Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis -

A. Paracetamol poisoning
B. Diethyl glycol poisoning
C. Severe malaria
D. Hanta virus infection
Answer» C. Severe malaria
45.

Xylose excretion test use to assess -

A. Liver function
B. Kidney function
C. Pancreatic function
D. Monosaccharide absorption
Answer» E.
46.

Which of the following antiretroviral drug is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor ?

A. Zidovudine
B. Efavirenz
C. Saquinavir
D. Stavudine
Answer» C. Saquinavir
47.

The commonest cause of female pseudohermaphroditism is -

A. Virilizing ovarian tumor
B. Exogenous androgen
C. Ovarian dysgensis(Turner's syndrome)
D. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Answer» E.
48.

Thyroid carcinoma associated with hypocalcemia is -

A. Follicular carcinoma
B. Medullary carcinoma
C. Anaplastic carcinoma
D. Papillary carcinoma
Answer» C. Anaplastic carcinoma
49.

A 50 kg woman with severe metabolic acidosis has the following parameters:pH 7.05,pCO2 12 mm Hg,pO2 108 mm Hg,HCO3 5 mEq/L base excess -30 mEq/L.The approximate quantity of sodium bicarbonate that she should receive in half hour is:

A. 500 mEq.
B. 750 mEq.
C. 250 mEq.
D. 1000 mEq.
Answer» D. 1000 mEq.
50.

Which of the following is the drug of choice for the treatment for inappropriate anti-diuretic hormone secretion -

A. Frusemide
B. Hydrochlorothizide
C. Spironolactone
D. Demeclocycline
Answer» E.