Explore topic-wise MCQs in Testing Subject.

This section includes 657 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Testing Subject knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

T.B. adenitis usually involves the -

A. Sub-maxillary nodes
B. Jugular nodes
C. Posterior cervical nodes
D. Supraclavicular nodes
Answer» D. Supraclavicular nodes
2.

Which of the following is true about C.S.F finding in pyogenic meningitis ?

A. Chloride increase protein decrease
B. Decrease protein, decrease sugar
C. Protein increase sugar decrease
D. Protein decrease, sugar increase
Answer» D. Protein decrease, sugar increase
3.

Plummer-Vinson syndrome is an -

A. Iron deficiency anemia
B. Anaplastic anemia
C. Vitamin deficiency
D. Increased hemoglobulin
Answer» C. Vitamin deficiency
4.

The paraneoplastic syndrome associated with Hodking's disease is -

A. Nephrotic disease
B. Retinopathy
C. Cerebellar degenerative disease
D. Acanthosis nigricans
Answer» D. Acanthosis nigricans
5.

Shigella associated hemolytic uramic syndrome is associated with A/E-

A. Neurological symptom
B. Renal microthrombi
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Thrombocytopenia
Answer» D. Thrombocytopenia
6.

Pulmonary edema associated with normal PCWP is observed,The causes are A/E:

A. Postcardiopulm bypass
B. Bilateral renal artery stenosis
C. High altitude
D. Cocaine overdose
Answer» C. High altitude
7.

Popcorntype of Reed-Sternberg cell is seen in the following type of Hodgkin's lymphoma -

A. Lymphocyte rich
B. Mixed cellularity
C. Lymphocyte predominance
D. Lymphocyte depletion
Answer» D. Lymphocyte depletion
8.

Cavitating lesion in lung is seen in -

A. Wegner's granulomatosis
B. PAN
C. SLE
D. Goodpasture's syndrome
Answer» B. PAN
9.

A 45 old executive who is heavy smoker, had severe retrosternal discomfort while going to toitel at 7.00 am. ECG done immediately showed ST segment elevation in inferior leads which normalised within an hour.The most likely diagnosis is -

A. Acute myocardial infarction
B. Prinzemental's angina
C. Acute pericarditis
D. Both A and B
Answer» E.
10.

External cardiac massage is usually done in the -

A. Lower 1/3 of sternum
B. Xiphisternum
C. Middle of sternum
D. Manubrium
Answer» B. Xiphisternum
11.

Which of the following is associated with Mitral stenosis?

A. Left axis deviation
B. QRS complex
C. Right ventricular hypertrophy
D. Left ventricular hypertrophy
Answer» D. Left ventricular hypertrophy
12.

Pheochromocytoma is associated with -

A. Vitiligo
B. Cafe-au-lait spots
C. Ash leaf amealanotic macules
D. Acanthosis Nigricans
Answer» C. Ash leaf amealanotic macules
13.

Causes of hypercalcemia include -

A. Hyperthyroidism
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Hypoparathyroidism
D. None of the above
Answer» B. Hypothyroidism
14.

Prions, which of following is correct

A. Nucleic acid present
B. Immunogenic
C. Long incubation period
D. Destroyed by autoclaving at 121C
Answer» D. Destroyed by autoclaving at 121C
15.

A maker of acute hepatitis B infection is-

A. Anti HBs
B. IgG to core antigen
C. DNA polymerase
D. Hepatitis core antigen
Answer» D. Hepatitis core antigen
16.

Which test is performed to detect reversible myocardial ischemia?

A. Coronary angiography
B. MUGA scan
C. Thallium Scan
D. Testing echocardiography
Answer» D. Testing echocardiography
17.

All are true about temporal artentis except -

A. Average age of onset is 70 years
B. More common in men
C. About half of patients with untreated temporal arteritis develop blindness
D. Steroids are the drugs of choice
Answer» C. About half of patients with untreated temporal arteritis develop blindness
18.

True regarding cardiac pulmonary resuscitation is -

A. Compression to ventilation ratio is 5:1
B. Most common presentation in ECG is asystole
C. Calcium gluconate is given immediately
D. All of the above
Answer» B. Most common presentation in ECG is asystole
19.

Factor deficiency in Christmas disease is -

A. II
B. VII
C. VIII
D. IX
Answer» E.
20.

All of the following are seen in osteogenesis imperfecta except:

A. Blue sclera
B. Ligament laxity
C. Posterior dislocation of hip
D. Osteoporosis
Answer» D. Osteoporosis
21.

All are true for benign essential tremor except

A. Propranolol is used for treatment
B. Alcohol controls this tremor
C. Autosomal dominant condition
D. Lesion in subthalamic nuclei.
Answer» E.
22.

A 33yrs man presents with fever,wt loss and cough;Mantoux reads an induration of 17x19 mm;sputum cytology is negative for AFB. Probable diagnosis is:

A. Viral infection
B. Pneumonia
C. Pulmonary tuberculosis
D. Fungal infection
Answer» D. Fungal infection
23.

Diagnostic test of extra intestinal invasive amoebiasis is

A. Counter immuno-electrophoresis
B. Complement fixation test
C. ELISA
D. Indirect haemagglutination test
Answer» D. Indirect haemagglutination test
24.

All of the following drugs are used in the prophylaxis of ventricular tachycardia except -

A. Verapamil
B. Amiodarone
C. Digoxin
D. Mexiltine
Answer» D. Mexiltine
25.

Intestinal hypomotility is seen in all the following except

A. Diabetes
B. Parkinsonism
C. Amyloidosis
D. All of the above
Answer» E.
26.

Blood gas measurements of a patient shows the following values pH 7.2,p CO2 80 mmHg,pO2 46 mmHg.Which of the following could be the most probable diagnosis:

A. Acute asthma
B. Acute exacerbation of COPD
C. ARDS
D. Severe pneumonia
Answer» C. ARDS
27.

Earliest abnormality of diabetic nephropathy is -

A. Hyperfiltration
B. Microalbuminuria
C. Hypertension
D. Proteinuria
Answer» B. Microalbuminuria
28.

Which of the following most significantly increases the risk of hepatocellular carcinoma -

A. Hep B
B. Hep A
C. CMV
D. EBV
Answer» B. Hep A
29.

Which of the following test is not a test for Helicobacter pylori infection ?

A. Faecal antigen test
B. Barium
C. Microbiological
D. Rapid urease test
Answer» C. Microbiological
30.

Werner's syndrome (multiple endocrine neoplasia type I) is characterised by all of the following except -

A. Tumours of anterior pituitary
B. Tumours of parathyroids
C. Pancreatic adenomas
D. Phaeochromocytoma
Answer» E.
31.

Cystatin C is used for ?

A. Diagnosis of acute renal failure
B. Transplant survival
C. Sepsis
D. Pancreatitis
Answer» B. Transplant survival
32.

Albuminocytological dissociation in CSF is observed in -

A. Viral Meningitis
B. Cervical spondylosis
C. Cerebral malaria
D. Infective polyneuritis
Answer» E.
33.

Most common type of Glial tumors is

A. Neurofibromas
B. Ependymomas
C. Astrocytomas
D. Medulloblastomas
Answer» D. Medulloblastomas
34.

Treatment of Neurocysticercosis includes A/E

A. Albendazole
B. Prazequentil
C. Flubendazole
D. Niclosamide
Answer» E.
35.

Characteristic of Grave disease are A/E -

A. Hyperthyroidism
B. Pretibial myxoedema
C. Atrial fibrillation
D. Opthalmopathy
Answer» D. Opthalmopathy
36.

All of the following statements about HRT(hormone replacement therapy) are true except -

A. It increases the risk of coronary artery disease
B. It increases bone mineral density
C. It increases the risk of breast cancer
D. It increases the risk of endometrial cancer
Answer» E.
37.

Migratory necrolytic erythema is seen in -

A. Glucagonoma syndrome
B. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
C. Sarcoidosis
D. Amyloidosis
Answer» B. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
38.

Which of the following commonly causes nosocomial pneumonia?

A. Gram-ve cocci
B. Mycoplasma
C. Gram-ve bacilli
D. Gram+ve bacilli
Answer» D. Gram+ve bacilli
39.

Which is not manifestation of congenital toxoplasmosis -

A. Chorioretinitis
B. Hydrocephalus
C. Intracranial calcification
D. Cerebellar atrophy
Answer» E.
40.

Which exclusively involve neurons -

A. Corticobasilar degeneration
B. Multiple system atrophy
C. Spinocerebellar ataxia
D. Supranuclear palsy
Answer» D. Supranuclear palsy
41.

Degenerative changes are seen in Huntigton's chorea in -

A. Cerebellum
B. Caudate nucleus
C. Red nucleus
D. Pons
Answer» C. Red nucleus
42.

A 41 yrs old male patient presented with recurrent episodes of bloody diarrhea for 5 yrs.Despite regular treatment with adequate doses of sulfasalazine,he has had several exacerbations of his disease and required several weeks of steroids for the control for flares.What should be the next line of treatment for him?

A. Methotrexate
B. Azathioprine
C. Cyclosporine
D. Cyclophosphamide
Answer» C. Cyclosporine
43.

Most common cause of hypofibrinogenemia is -

A. Abruptio placentae
B. Ammiotic fluid embolism
C. Intrauterine death
D. PPH
Answer» B. Ammiotic fluid embolism
44.

Most of the deaths after a myocardial infarction are seen within the first -

A. 1 hour
B. 6 hour
C. 24 hour
D. One week
Answer» B. 6 hour
45.

Pancreatic cholera is characterized by all except

A. Hypochlorhydria
B. Hypokalemia
C. Glucose intolerance
D. Hypocalcemia
Answer» E.
46.

In neuralgic pain all of the following drugs are used except-

A. Sodium valproate
B. Clonazepam
C. Phenytoin
D. Carbamazepine
Answer» B. Clonazepam
47.

The following conditions predispose to Leukaemias -

A. Blooms syndrome
B. Downs syndrome
C. Fanconi's anemia
D. All of the above
Answer» E.
48.

In severe digitalis toxicity, the drug of choice is -

A. Phenytoin
B. Propranolol
C. Electrical cardioversion
D. Fab fragment of digitalis antibody
Answer» E.
49.

Conn's syndrome is characterised by all except -

A. Polyuria
B. Polydyspia
C. Weakness
D. Anasarca
Answer» E.
50.

In thyroid crisis all are given except -

A. Iodine
B. Iodides
C. Neomercazole
D. Propranolol
Answer» B. Iodides