Explore topic-wise MCQs in Testing Subject.

This section includes 657 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Testing Subject knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

Patient is being treated with clomiphene for infertility, method of choice to look for ovulation is -

A. Serial ultrasound
B. Chest X-ray
C. Serial HCH
D. None
Answer» B. Chest X-ray
2.

Post coital test detects all of the following.Except:

A. Fallopian tube block
B. Cervical factor abnormality
C. Sperm count
D. Sperm abnormality
Answer» B. Cervical factor abnormality
3.

Bitemporal diameter in term fetus -

A. 8 cm
B. 8.5 cm
C. 9.5 cm
D. 10 cm
Answer» B. 8.5 cm
4.

Oocyte is mostly seen in:

A. Intrauterine life
B. Puberty
C. At birth
D. Mid-reproductive age
Answer» B. Puberty
5.

Molecular analysis of Chorionic villous sample is useful in diagnosis all the following except

A. Tay-Sachs disease
B. Cystic fibrosis
C. Beta-Thallassemia
D. Duchene's dystrophy
Answer» B. Cystic fibrosis
6.

First trimester abortion is caused most commonly by:

A. Listeria monocytogenes
B. Toxoplasma gondii
C. Chlamydia
D. Mycoplasma hominis
Answer» C. Chlamydia
7.

Hasse's formula used in pregnancy to ?

A. Estimate fetal age
B. Identify fetal blood group
C. Identify fetal sex
D. Identify fetal congenital malformations
Answer» B. Identify fetal blood group
8.

The best time to do chorionic villous sampling is -

A. Between 6-8 weeks
B. Between 7-9 weeks
C. Between 9-11 weeks
D. Between 11-13 weeks
Answer» E.
9.

Which of the following is a non hormonal contraceptive:

A. OCP
B. Implanon
C. Centchroman
D. DMPA
Answer» D. DMPA
10.

Dysgerminoma secretetes -

A. Placental alkaline phosphatase
B. Beta HCG
C. Estrogen
D. Both A and B
Answer» E.
11.

Most common infection responsible for spontaneous abortion:

A. Toxoplasma
B. Listeria
C. Mycoplasma
D. Brucella
Answer» D. Brucella
12.

Rokitanski kuster Hauser Syndrome comprise all, except -

A. Anovulation
B. Uterine atresia
C. 46XX
D. Vaginal atresia
Answer» B. Uterine atresia
13.

All of the following are included in the expectant management of placenta praevia,except:

A. Corticosteroids
B. Blood transfusion
C. Cervical Encirclage
D. Anti-D administration
Answer» D. Anti-D administration
14.

30 year old primipara in labour with transverse lie. Treatment of choice is -

A. Internal cephalic version
B. Emergency caesarian section
C. Wait and watch
D. External cephalic version
Answer» C. Wait and watch
15.

The following are risk factors for carcinoma endometrium except -

A. Early menopause
B. Endometrial hyperplasia
C. Nulliparity
D. Obesity
Answer» B. Endometrial hyperplasia
16.

Which drug is contraindicated in pregnancy

A. Methyldopa
B. Hydralazine
C. Captopril
D. All of the above
Answer» D. All of the above
17.

A female patient has adenocarcinoma uterus along with sarcoma of uterus.It is known as-

A. Homologous sarcoma
B. Sarcoma uterus
C. Mixed mullerian carcinogenesis
D. Heterologous sarcoma
Answer» D. Heterologous sarcoma
18.

Most useful investigation in the first trimester to identify risk of fetal malformation in a fetus of a diabetic mother is:

A. MSAFP
B. Amniocentesis
C. Glycosylated Hb
D. Ultrasound
Answer» D. Ultrasound
19.

Genital prolapse associated with all except:

A. Straining during defecation and constipation
B. Increased tissue weakness
C. Menopause
D. Multigravida
Answer» E.
20.

The following statements are true regarding vulval carcinoma except -

A. Associated with obesity, diabetes and hypertension
B. Clitoris is the commonest site of the lesion
C. Pruritis vulvae is a presenting symptom of the disease
D. Squamous cell carcinoma is the commonest type
Answer» C. Pruritis vulvae is a presenting symptom of the disease
21.

Best indicator of ovarian reserve is ?

A. LH
B. FSH/LH ratio
C. FSH
D. Estradiol
Answer» D. Estradiol
22.

Which is the commonest diameter of engagement -

A. Suboccipitofrontal
B. Mentovertical
C. Occipito frontal
D. Submento vertical
Answer» B. Mentovertical
23.

In pregnancy,the most common cause of transient-diabetes insipidus is-

A. Severe pre-eclampsia
B. Hydramnios
C. Multiple pregnancy
D. IUGR
Answer» B. Hydramnios
24.

Minimum duration between onset of symptoms and death is seen in:

A. PPH
B. APH
C. Obstructed labor
D. Septicemia
Answer» B. APH
25.

The severity of pelvic pain in patients with end endometriosis correlated best with -

A. Number of implants
B. Depth of invasion of lesions
C. Type of lesions
D. Stage of disease
Answer» C. Type of lesions
26.

Division of eggs taking place on 7th day leads to which type of twins ?

A. Dichorionic diamnionic
B. Monochorionic diamnionic
C. Monochorionic monoamnionic
D. Conjoint twins
Answer» C. Monochorionic monoamnionic
27.

In a case of ectopic pregnancy , medical treatment is contraindicated if -

A. Sac size is 3.0 cm
B. Serum hCG levels >1500 miu/mL
C. Significant haemoperitoneum
D. Absent fetal heart activity
Answer» D. Absent fetal heart activity
28.

17 years female with b/l inguinal hernias, secondary sexual characteristic seen, no pubic and axillary hair with primary amenorrhoea -

A. Androgen insensitivity syndrome
B. Mullerian agenesis
C. Turner syndrome
D. Star
Answer» B. Mullerian agenesis
29.

All of the following statements about mother to child transmission of HIV are true,Except:

A. Risk of mother to child transmission can be reduced by elective cesarian section
B. Risk is related to the status of infection in mother
C. Transmission most commonly occurs during early gestation
D. Majority of fetuses are not infected even without any intervention
Answer» D. Majority of fetuses are not infected even without any intervention
30.

What is the ideal treatment for a 55 year female with Simple Hyperplasia of endometrium with Atypia?

A. Levonorgesterol (LNG)
B. IUCD
C. Simple hysterectomy
D. Medroxy progesterone Acetate (MPA)
Answer» D. Medroxy progesterone Acetate (MPA)
31.

Secondary PPH is caused by:

A. Endometriosis
B. Endometrial hyperplasia
C. Trophoblastic disease
D. Retained products of conception
Answer» E.
32.

What is the most common method for detecting early stage ovarian cancer ?

A. Evaluation of vague gastrointestinal symptoms
B. Palpation of an asymptomatic mass during routine pelvic examination
C. Screening CA-125
D. Screening vaginal ultrasound
Answer» C. Screening CA-125
33.

All of the following are classified as primary supports of uterus except:

A. Utero-sacral ligament
B. Broad ligament
C. Trans cervical ligament
D. Pubocervical ligament
Answer» C. Trans cervical ligament
34.

Which of the following risk factors is associated with carcinoma endometrium

A. Multiparity
B. Nulliparity
C. Early marriage
D. Oral pill use
Answer» C. Early marriage
35.

Young lady presents with acute abdominal pain and history of 1.5 months amenorrhoea on USG examination there is collection of fluid in the pouch of douglas and empty gestational sac.Diagnosis is

A. Ectopic pregnancy
B. Pelvic hematocele
C. Threatened abortion
D. Twisted ovarian cyst
Answer» B. Pelvic hematocele
36.

The following structures from the ovarian pedicle except -

A. Infundibulopelvic ligament
B. Mesosalpinx
C. Ovarian ligament
D. Round ligament
Answer» E.
37.

Ideal time to perform screening test for gestational diabetes (in weeks) is -

A. 06-08-2015 12:00:00 AM
B. 01-12-2014 12:00:00 AM
C. 24-28
D. 36-38
Answer» D. 36-38
38.

All are features of infant born to diabetic mother except -

A. Obesity
B. Learning disability
C. Ketotic hypoglycemia
D. Future diabetes mellites
Answer» D. Future diabetes mellites
39.

Treatment for young unmarried nulliparous prolapsed is -

A. Vaginal hysterectomy
B. Le Fort's operation
C. Shirodkar's abdominal sling operation
D. Forther Gills repair
Answer» D. Forther Gills repair
40.

Most common change in fibroid is:

A. Red degeneration
B. Hyaline degeneration
C. Calcification
D. Sarcomatous change
Answer» C. Calcification
41.

Vaginal delivery can be allowed in all except-

A. Extended breeth
B. Dichorionic twins with first vertex and second breeth
C. Monochrionic, monoamniotic twins
D. Mentoanterior
Answer» D. Mentoanterior
42.

Which of the following is the commonest fistula as a complication of obstructed labour ?

A. Vesico vaginal fistula
B. Uretro vaginal fistula
C. Uretro abdominal fistula
D. Vesico cervical fistula
Answer» B. Uretro vaginal fistula
43.

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding polycystic ovarian disease?

A. May be associated with abnormal glucose tolerance test
B. Results in postdated pregnancy
C. Elevated LH hormone
D. Can cause infertility
Answer» C. Elevated LH hormone
44.

All predisposes to isoimmunisation in a RH-ve female except -

A. Advaned maternal age
B. Antepartum haemorrhage
C. Caesarian section
D. Post dated pregnancy
Answer» B. Antepartum haemorrhage
45.

Gestation sac is seen earliest at -

A. 5-6 weeks
B. 7-8 weeks
C. 10-12 weeks
D. 12-16 weeks
Answer» B. 7-8 weeks
46.

Cervical cone biopsy in a case of carcinoma cervix causes all, except -

A. Bleeding
B. Cervical stenosis
C. Infection
D. Spread of malignancy
Answer» E.
47.

Most common cause of breech -

A. Contracted pelvis
B. Hydramnios
C. Placenta previa
D. Prematurity
Answer» E.
48.

Antiepileptic of choice in pregnancy is ?

A. Valproate
B. Carbamazepine
C. Phynetoin
D. None of the above
Answer» E.
49.

After full term normal delivery patient went into shock.Most probable cause is-

A. Amniotic fluid embolism
B. Eclapsia
C. Inversion of uterus
D. PPH
Answer» D. PPH
50.

The best contraceptive method in a patient with heart disease is:

A. Double barrier
B. IUCD
C. Tubectomy
D. Oral pills
Answer» B. IUCD