Explore topic-wise MCQs in Testing Subject.

This section includes 657 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Testing Subject knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

The following are all true about Ipratropium bromide except

A. Used by inhalation
B. Increase IOP
C. Dryness of mouth
D. Scratching in trachea
Answer» C. Dryness of mouth
2.

Which of the following is not an alpha adrenoceptor agonist ?

A. Clonidine
B. Methyldopa
C. Guanabenz
D. Guanfacine
Answer» C. Guanabenz
3.

Gynaecomastia is a side effect of all, except -

A. Digitalis
B. Ketoconazole
C. Rifampicin
D. Spironolactone
Answer» D. Spironolactone
4.

Pain is caused by injection of -

A. Ketamine
B. Methohexitone
C. Di-isopropyl alcohol
D. Thiopentone
Answer» E.
5.

Newly FDA approved drug for lennoxgestaut syndrome -

A. Locasemide
B. Rufinamide
C. Levatiracetam
D. Vigabatrin
Answer» C. Levatiracetam
6.

True about carbamazepine ?

A. Does not aglanulocytoses
B. Serious nephrotoxicity
C. Dose monitoring not needed
D. Stevens Johnson syndrome
Answer» E.
7.

Treatment of whooping cough is -

A. Rifampicin
B. Tetracycline
C. Erythromycin
D. Ampicillin
Answer» D. Ampicillin
8.

All are used to treat hypercalcemia, except -

A. D-penicillamine
B. Corticosteroid
C. Biphosphonate
D. Mithramycin
Answer» B. Corticosteroid
9.

Drug of choice of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia is -

A. Adenosine
B. Digitalis
C. Procainamide
D. Mexiletine
Answer» B. Digitalis
10.

Cetuximab ( an EGFR antagonist ) can be used in

A. Gastric ca
B. Lung ca
C. Palliation in head and neck cancer
D. Anal canal ca
Answer» D. Anal canal ca
11.

Which of the following agents is used for the treatment of Thrombocytopenia secondary to myelosupressive cancer chemotherapy

A. Sargramostim
B. Filgrastim
C. Erythropoetin
D. Oprelvekin
Answer» E.
12.

Which of the following is given by sublingual route to avoid hepatic first pass metabolism:

A. Natural estrogen
B. Stanozolol
C. Tamoxifen
D. Stilbestrol
Answer» C. Tamoxifen
13.

A 12 year old with rapid increase in weight and height over the past one year presents with difficulty in sitting cross legged and squatting.The knee would go into axilla every time she flexes her hip and knee.The most likely diagnosis is:

A. Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis
B. Perths disease
C. Synovitis of knee
D. Congenital Coxa Vera
Answer» B. Perths disease
14.

All of the following statements about synovial fluid are true,Except.

A. Contains Hyaluronic acid
B. Viscosity is variable
C. Secreted primarily by type A synovial cells
D. Follows Non - Newtonian Fluid Kinetics
Answer» D. Follows Non - Newtonian Fluid Kinetics
15.

Three point relationship is reversed in all,except

A. # medial epicondyle
B. # lateral epicondyle
C. Supracondylar #
D. Posterior elbow dislocation
Answer» D. Posterior elbow dislocation
16.

Posterior Dislocation of hip is characterized by

A. Adduction and Internal rotation
B. Abduction and Internal rotation
C. Adduction and external rotation
D. Abduction and external rotation
Answer» B. Abduction and Internal rotation
17.

In a young boy, X-ray of upper end of tibia shows a lytic lesion.The least likely diagnosis is -

A. Giant cell tumour
B. Osteosarcoma
C. Solitary bone cyst
D. Tuberculosis
Answer» B. Osteosarcoma
18.

Medial meniscus of knee joint is injured more often than the lateral meniscus because the medial meniscus is relatively

A. More mobile
B. Less mobile
C. Thinner
D. Attached lightly to femur
Answer» C. Thinner
19.

Pulse proteins are deficient in -

A. Histidine
B. Lysine
C. Methionine
D. Threonine
Answer» D. Threonine
20.

Which one of the following is the most significant risk factor for development of gastric carcinoma?

A. Pyloric metaplasia
B. Paneth cell metaplasia
C. Ciliated metaplasia
D. Intestinal metaplasia
Answer» E.
21.

The fixation used in histopathology -

A. 10% buffered neutral formalin
B. Bouins fixative
C. Glutaraldehyde
D. Ethyl alcohol
Answer» B. Bouins fixative
22.

A 3 year old female child presents with skin papules.Which of the following is a marker of Langerhan's cell histiocytosis ?

A. CD 68
B. CD 57
C. CD 1a
D. CD 3
Answer» D. CD 3
23.

All the following statements are false,except:

A. Collagenous colitis is seen in children
B. Ulcerative colitis is an acute granulomatus disease
C. Ulcerative colitis involves mucosa and submucosa
D. Necrotizing enterocolitis is an acute granulomatous disease
Answer» D. Necrotizing enterocolitis is an acute granulomatous disease
24.

A newborn baby presented with profuse bleeding from the umbilical stump after birth.Rest of the examination and PT, APTT are within normal limits.Most probable diagnosis is -

A. Factor X deficiency
B. Glanzmann thrombasthenia
C. Von willebrand disease
D. Bernad soulier disease
Answer» C. Von willebrand disease
25.

Which of the following is an antiapoptotic gene?

A. P53
B. C-myc
C. bax
D. bcl-2
Answer» E.
26.

A chromosomal aberration that results fin a disturbance in the normal gene balance is termed -

A. Nondisjunction
B. Euploidy
C. Aneuploidy
D. Breakage
Answer» D. Breakage
27.

Most radiosensitive phase of the cell cycle is:

A. S
B. G1
C. G2M
D. G0
Answer» D. G0
28.

Langerhan's cells are:

A. Antigen presenting cells
B. Phagocytic cells
C. Seen in chronic infection
D. Seen in auto immune conditions
Answer» B. Phagocytic cells
29.

In malignant hypertension hyperplastic arteriosclerosis is seen in all except:

A. Heart
B. Kidney
C. Pericardial Fat
D. Peripancreatic fat
Answer» B. Kidney
30.

Reye's syndrome - histological finding -

A. Paranuclear microdebse deposits
B. Glycogen depletion
C. Budding and branching of mitochondria
D. Swelling of endoplasmic reticulum
Answer» C. Budding and branching of mitochondria
31.

A 9 year old boy with elevation in both PT and APTT.What is the diagnosis-

A. Platelet function defect
B. Defect in common pathway
C. Defect in extrinsic path way
D. Defect in intrinsic pathway
Answer» C. Defect in extrinsic path way
32.

Which of the following porphyrias is not inherited as an Autosomal Dominant disorder:

A. Congenital Erythropoetis Porphyria
B. Acute Intermittent Porphyria
C. Hereditary Coproporphyria
D. Porphyria Cutanea Tarda
Answer» B. Acute Intermittent Porphyria
33.

Males who are sexually under developed with rudimentary tests and prostate glands,sparse pubic and facial hair,long arms and legs and large hands and feet are likely to have the chromosome complement of:

A. 46, XY
B. 45, XYY
C. 46, X
D. 46, XXY
Answer» E.
34.

Triple helix is found in:

A. Collagen
B. Cystine
C. DNA
D. Pectin
Answer» B. Cystine
35.

Earliest changes of neoplastic transformation as seen at a microscopic level is called -

A. Hyperplasia
B. Metaplaisa
C. Dysplasia
D. Carcinoma in sutu
Answer» D. Carcinoma in sutu
36.

A 23 year old female presented with jaundice and pallor for 2 months. Her peripheral blood smear shows the presence of spherocytes.The most relevant investigation to arrive at a diagnosis is -

A. Retics count
B. Osmotic fragility test
C. Coombs test
D. Tests fro PNH
Answer» D. Tests fro PNH
37.

Hematopoetic stem cell differ from progenitor stem cell in that they can -

A. Form terminally differentiated cells
B. Long term reconstitution of bone marrow
C. Produce growth factors
D. Have receptors for anchoring proteins
Answer» C. Produce growth factors
38.

Which of the following statements is not correct regarding p53 gene?

A. Is a 53 kD protein
B. Wild type is associated with tumors
C. Located on chromosome 17
D. Arrests cell cycle at G1 phase
Answer» C. Located on chromosome 17
39.

Flat vegetations in pockets of valves are due to:

A. Libman sacks Endocarditis
B. Rheumatic heart disease
C. Infective endocarditis
D. NBTE
Answer» B. Rheumatic heart disease
40.

Drug of choice for Neutropenia due to cancer chemotherapy is ?

A. Vitamin B-12
B. IL 11
C. Filgrastim
D. Erythropoietin
Answer» D. Erythropoietin
41.

Orange coloured urine is due to:

A. Rifampicin
B. INH
C. Pyrazinamide
D. Ethambutol
Answer» B. INH
42.

If a patient on digitals develops ventricular tachycardia,which of the following drugs you will NOT use in management:

A. Amiodarone
B. Quinidine
C. Phenytoin
D. Lidocaine
Answer» C. Phenytoin
43.

Which of the following is a non-catecholamine sympathomimetic drug?

A. Ephedrine
B. Dopamine
C. Isoproterenol
D. Dobutamine
Answer» B. Dopamine
44.

True about extended spectrum penicillin:

A. Broad-spectrum action against anaerobes
B. Acts against Pseudomonas
C. Works only in alkaline medium
D. Acts synergistically with clavulanic acid and sulbactam
Answer» E.
45.

Which of the following is a benzodiazepine antagonist ?

A. Oxazepam
B. Flumazenil
C. Neostigmine
D. Naloxone
Answer» C. Neostigmine
46.

All are nephrotoxic, except -

A. Lithium
B. Gentamicin
C. Chlorpromazine
D. Cephalosporins
Answer» D. Cephalosporins
47.

The following drugs are useful in diabetes insipidus EXCEPT

A. Desmopressin
B. Lithium
C. Chlorpropamide
D. Hydrochlorthiazide
Answer» C. Chlorpropamide
48.

Buprenorphine is partial agonist of -

A. Mu receptor
B. Delta receptor
C. Kappa receptor
D. Sigma receptor
Answer» B. Delta receptor
49.

A known case of COPD who is on theophyline develops severe respiratory infection.For treatment which of the following antibiotics should be avoided so as to avoid interaction with theophyline:

A. Erythromycin
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Amoxicillin
D. Cefalexin
Answer» B. Ciprofloxacin
50.

Which of the following statements is true about gentamicin ?

A. It is a polar cation and therefore, it is very poorly absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract
B. It is not used in combination with a cephalosporin for the therapy of proven gram negative microbial infections
C. Nephrotoxicity and irreversible ototoxicity are not the most important and serious side effects of gentamicin
D. Gentamicin is effective for the treatment of pneumonia due to anaerobes
Answer» B. It is not used in combination with a cephalosporin for the therapy of proven gram negative microbial infections