Explore topic-wise MCQs in Testing Subject.

This section includes 657 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Testing Subject knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

Brombocriptine is NOT used in -

A. Induction of ovulation
B. Galactorrhoea
C. Post pill amenorrhoea
D. Luteal phase defect
Answer» D. Luteal phase defect
2.

Hit and run drug is:

A. Reserpine
B. Prazosin
C. Methyldopa
D. Propranolol
Answer» B. Prazosin
3.

All of the following are features of sympathetic stimulation of heart,except:

A. Increase Heart rate
B. Increase Contractility
C. Increase Conduction velocity Increased
D. Increase Refractory period
Answer» E.
4.

Third generation cephalosporins include all the following except -

A. Ceftizoxime
B. Cefoperazone
C. Cefoxitin
D. Cefixime
Answer» D. Cefixime
5.

Wrong about prazosin is:

A. Alpha 2 presynaptic blocker
B. Orally effective
C. Metabolised in liver
D. First dose effect may occur
Answer» B. Orally effective
6.

Digoxin dose has to be regulated in all, except -

A. Hepatotoxicity
B. Old age
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypoxia
Answer» B. Old age
7.

Hypernuricemia is a side effect of -

A. INH
B. Rifampicin
C. Streptomycin
D. Pyrazinamide
Answer» E.
8.

Peripheral neuropathy is a side effect of -

A. Bleomycin
B. Busulphan
C. Cisplatin
D. Doxorubicin
Answer» D. Doxorubicin
9.

Which of the following statements best describes mechanism of action of benzodiazepines -

A. Benzodiazepenes activate GABA (B) receptors in the spinal cord
B. Their inhibition of GABA transaminase leads to increased levels of GABA
C. Benzodiazepenes block glutamate receptors in hierarchical Neural pathways in the br
D. They increase the frequency of opening of chloride ion channels that are coupled to GABA (A) receptors
Answer» E.
10.

Zolpidem is a -

A. Benzodiazepine sedative - hypnotic drug
B. Nonbenzodiazepine sedative - hypnotic drug
C. Barbiturate sedative - hypnotic drug
D. Phenothiazine sedative - hypnotic drug
Answer» C. Barbiturate sedative - hypnotic drug
11.

Chordoma can occur over all the following sites,except:

A. Sacrum
B. Vertebral body
C. Rib
D. Clivus
Answer» D. Clivus
12.

Which of the following deformity occurs in polio

A. Flexion,abduction and external rotation of hip
B. Knee flexion
C. Equinus deformity of ankle
D. All of the above
Answer» E.
13.

Drug induced Osteomalacia is known to be associated with the use of:

A. Heparin
B. Steroids
C. Gentamycin
D. Phenytoin
Answer» E.
14.

All are true regarding oral hypoglycemic agent,Except:

A. Effective only after total pancreatectomy
B. Metformin causes lactic acidosis
C. Causes release of insulin from beta-cells
D. Useful in obese maturity onset diabetics
Answer» B. Metformin causes lactic acidosis
15.

Role of colchicine in acute gout is:

A. inhibits xanthine oxidase
B. Prevents chemotaxis and inflammation
C. Increases uric acid excretion
D. Stimulate granulocyte migration
Answer» C. Increases uric acid excretion
16.

Which of the following antipileptic drug does not produce hepatic micromosomal enzyme induction?

A. Phenobarbitone
B. Carbarnazepine
C. Phenytoin
D. Sodium valproate
Answer» E.
17.

Flutamide is an -

A. Anti convulsant
B. Anti androgen
C. Anti progestin
D. Anti estrogen
Answer» C. Anti progestin
18.

Side effect HAART therapy all are except

A. Lipodytrophy
B. Steatosis
C. Increased cholesterol
D. Optic neuritis
Answer» E.
19.

Aspirin is used in prophylaxis of MI, because -

A. It is an analgesic
B. Of antiplatelet action
C. Of sedative effect
D. Of prostaglandins inhibitory actions
Answer» C. Of sedative effect
20.

ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in bilateral renal artery stenosis, because -

A. Angiotension II has direct effect on GFR
B. Enhances bradykinin action
C. Hyperreninism affects renal parenchyma
D. Affects prostagladins
Answer» B. Enhances bradykinin action
21.

A girl on sulphonamides developed abdominal pain and presented to emergency with seizure. What is the probable cause?

A. Infectious mononucleosis
B. Kawasakis disease
C. Acute intermittent porphyria
D. Congenital erythropoietic porphyria
Answer» D. Congenital erythropoietic porphyria
22.

Adrenal steroids are contraindicated in all except

A. Severe hypertension
B. Osteoporosis
C. Diabetes mellitus
D. Cushing's syndrome
Answer» E.
23.

Regarding ACE inhibitor which of the following is true

A. T1/2 of enalapril is more than lisinoproil
B. Inhibits conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin 1
C. It is effective only with left ventricular systolic dysfunction
D. Omission of prior diuretic dose decreases the risk of postural hypotension
Answer» E.
24.

Drug used in heparin overdose

A. Ticlopidine
B. Clopidogrel
C. Protamine sulfate
D. Phylloquinone
Answer» D. Phylloquinone
25.

Most common nerve to be damaged in dislocation of shoulder is:

A. Median nerve
B. Musculocutaneous nerve
C. Axillary nerve
D. Radial nerve
Answer» D. Radial nerve
26.

According to Enneking system, not true regarding an active benign tumor is

A. Margin of reactive bone
B. Intracapsular
C. Extended curettage is treatment
D. Thick rim of reactive bone
Answer» E.
27.

Feature of shock lung is -

A. Organizing pneumonia
B. Bronchilolitis
C. Diffuse alveolar damage
D. Usual interstitial pneumonitis
Answer» D. Usual interstitial pneumonitis
28.

All of the following statements about Xanthogranulomatous inflammation are true, except:

A. Multinucleated Giant cells are seen
B. Associated with Tuberculosis
C. Foam cells are seen
D. Yellow nodules are seen
Answer» C. Foam cells are seen
29.

A 56 year old Type II diabetic presents with complaints of swelling in the left ankle with effusion but only minimal pain.X-rays show severe osteopenia with bone destruction,extensive osteophytosis and loose bodies.The management of this patient includes all of the following except

A. Aspiration and Compression bandage
B. Resting and Splinting
C. Ankle arthrodesis
D. Total Ankle Replacement
Answer» E.
30.

Which of the following statements about Platelet function defects is true:

A. Thrombocytosis with prolonged bleeding time
B. Normal Platelet count with normal bleeding time
C. Normal Platelet count with prolonged bleeding time
D. Thrombocytopenia with prolonged bleeding time
Answer» D. Thrombocytopenia with prolonged bleeding time
31.

Steroid causes:

A. Increased TSH
B. Increased FSH
C. Prevent de-iodination
D. All of the above
Answer» D. All of the above
32.

Use of Ergotamine is contraindicated in:

A. Anemia
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. PPH (Postpartum haemorrhage)
D. Ischaemic heart disease
Answer» E.
33.

Oral anticoagulants are stopped prior to surgery for at least -

A. 1-3 days
B. 3-5 days
C. 8-10 days
D. 6-8 days
Answer» E.
34.

Which analgesic is not used in Acute myocardial infarction

A. Morphine
B. Pentazocine
C. Pethidine
D. Buprenorphine
Answer» C. Pethidine
35.

Cardiac or central nervous system toxicity may result when standard lidocaine doses are administered to patients with circulatory failure.This may be due to the following reason:

A. There is a sudden out-burst of release of adreneline,noradreneline and dopamine in brain and heart
B. Lidocaine is converted into a toxic metabolite due to its longer stay in liver.
C. Lidocaine concentration are initially higher in relatively well perfused tissues such as brain and heart
D. Histamine receptors in brain and heart gets suddenly activated in circulatory failure
Answer» D. Histamine receptors in brain and heart gets suddenly activated in circulatory failure
36.

All of the following can cause hemolytic anaemia in G-6 PD deficiency, except -

A. Primaquine
B. Sulphonamide
C. Penicillin
D. Aspirin in large dosage
Answer» D. Aspirin in large dosage
37.

SSUI which does not cause discontinuation symptoms when stopped abruptly ?

A. Sertraline
B. Fluoxetine
C. Escitalopram
D. Fluvoxamine
Answer» D. Fluvoxamine
38.

Most common carcinoma of breast is:

A. Lobular carcinoma
B. Sarcoma phylloides
C. Intra-ductal carcinoma
D. Colloid carcinoma
Answer» D. Colloid carcinoma
39.

Deposition of calcium in dying tissue is called -

A. Metastatic calcification
B. Dystrophic calcification
C. Heterotropic calcification
D. Normal calcification
Answer» C. Heterotropic calcification
40.

CD-99 is marker of ?

A. Ewing sarcoma
B. Chronic lymphocytic liukemia
C. Mantle cell lymphoma
D. All of the above
Answer» B. Chronic lymphocytic liukemia
41.

All of the following are side effects of tacrolimus except:

A. Ototoxicity
B. Nephrotoxicity
C. Hepatotoxicity
D. Neurotoxicity
Answer» B. Nephrotoxicity
42.

Local anaesthetic which does not cause vasodilation -

A. Lignocaine
B. Cocaine
C. Bupivacaine
D. Tetracaine
Answer» C. Bupivacaine
43.

A 45 years old male had severe chest pain and was admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of acute myocardial infraction.Four days later he died and autosy showed transmural coagulative necrosis. Which of the following microscopic features will be seen on further examination -

A. Granulation tissue
B. Fibroblasts and collagen
C. Granulomatous inflamation
D. Neutrophilic infiltration surrounding coagulative necrosis
Answer» E.
44.

Drug induced interstitial nephritis caused by -

A. Methicillin
B. Cloxacillin
C. Azlocillin
D. Piperacillin
Answer» B. Cloxacillin
45.

Which of the following will be optimum treatment in a patient of chronic hepatitis B whose serum AST levels are raised:

A. Lamivudine
B. Lamivudine + interferons
C. Immunoglobulins
D. Interferons
Answer» B. Lamivudine + interferons
46.

Which of the following is not true about Mebendazole -

A. Safe in pregnancy
B. Broad spectrum antihelminthic
C. Relatively low systematic bioavailability
D. Active against both larva and adult worm
Answer» B. Broad spectrum antihelminthic
47.

Which of the following interacts with digitalis maximally -

A. Furosemide
B. Triamterene
C. Amiloride
D. Spironolactone
Answer» B. Triamterene
48.

Which NSAID should not be used with methotrexate:

A. Diclofenac
B. Paracetamol
C. Indomethacin
D. Aspirin
Answer» E.
49.

Beta-blocker causes:

A. Bronchodilation
B. Bradycardia
C. Cerebellar ataxia
D. Muscle atrophy
Answer» C. Cerebellar ataxia
50.

Voriconazole is not effective against -

A. Mucormyocosis
B. Aspergillosis
C. Candida tropicalis
D. Candida albicans
Answer» B. Aspergillosis