Explore topic-wise MCQs in Testing Subject.

This section includes 657 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Testing Subject knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

Match the following:OD Interventions Grouping Term Proposed bya. OD Cube 1) French and Bellb. Consul cube 2) Freneh and Bellc. Intervention families 3) Blake and Moutond. Four quadrants 4) Schmuck and MilesCodes: a b c d

A. 4 3 2 1
B. 3 4 2 1
C. 2 1 3 4
D. 1 2 4 3
Answer» B. 3 4 2 1
2.

The elasticity of demand is greater than unity, when

A. Percentage change in demand is equal to the percentage change in price.
B. Percentage change in demand is more than the percentage change in price.
C. Percentage change in demand is less than the percentage change in price.
D. There is change in price.
Answer» C. Percentage change in demand is less than the percentage change in price.
3.

The book 'Innovation and Entrepreneurship' is written by

A. Harold Koontz
B. Blake and Mouton
C. Peter F. Drucker
D. None of the above
Answer» D. None of the above
4.

State Financial Corporation Act encourages in

A. Establishing Industrial Estates
B. Establishing small and medium size industries
C. Establishing Agricultural Farms
D. All of the above
Answer» C. Establishing Agricultural Farms
5.

Which business unit generates substantial cash surplus due to low industry growth rate and high profit share?

A. Dog
B. Cash cow
C. Question mark
D. Star
Answer» C. Question mark
6.

Name the factors taken into consideration in Internal Analysis

A. Firm Resources
B. Objective, plans and policies of the firm
C. The type of business involved
D. All of the above
Answer» E.
7.

Policies related to Revival of Sick Units are framed by

A. IIFT
B. CSIR
C. SEBI
D. MSME
Answer» E.
8.

Diversification is to a new business area that has no obvious connection with any of the company's existing areas refer to

A. Forward integration
B. Backward integration
C. Conglomerate diversification
D. Concentric diversification
Answer» E.
9.

What describes the market, product and technological areas of business?

A. BCG Matrix
B. GE Nine Cell Matrix
C. 7's framework
D. Company's Mission
Answer» E.
10.

Which of the following devices would be considered a typical sequential access medium?

A. Magnetic Hard Disk
B. Magnetic Floppy Disk
C. Magnetic Tape
D. CD ROM
Answer» D. CD ROM
11.

Which of the following statement on testing of hypothesis is always true?

A. When the null hypothesis is rejected at 5%, it is always rejected at 1% level of significance.
B. When the null hypothesis is rejected at 1%, it is also rejected at 5% level of significance.
C. When the null hypothesis is not rejected at 1%, it is rejected at 5% level of significance.
D. No definite assertion can be made.
Answer» C. When the null hypothesis is not rejected at 1%, it is rejected at 5% level of significance.
12.

Who plays an important role in the success of products and services and in increasing the marketing share of the firm in business?

A. Functional level Managers
B. Corporate level Managers
C. Business level Managers
D. All of the above
Answer» E.
13.

A store manager is trying to explore the relationship between percentage fat content (Y) and price (X) of various dairy products. He finds that the coefficient of determination is 0.4624 and the estimated regression line is Y = 0.5 – 0.02 X. The coefficient of correlation would be

A. 0.68
B. - 0.68
C. - 0.02
D. 0.4624
Answer» C. - 0.02
14.

The critical path of a network is

A. For which earliest start time and latest start time are same
B. The shortest time path through a network
C. For which earliest finish time and latest finish time are same
D. The longest time path through a network
Answer» C. For which earliest finish time and latest finish time are same
15.

Acceptance Quality level is

A. Maximum number of defectives that the consumers will accept
B. Fraction defective(s) that the consumer considers acceptable
C. Fraction defective(s) that the producer considers acceptable
D. Maximum number of defectives that the producer will allow
Answer» C. Fraction defective(s) that the producer considers acceptable
16.

In a transportation problem involving 10 origins and 5 destinations, the number of constraints representing origin capacity and destination requirements is equal to

A. 50
B. 49
C. 15
D. 14
Answer» D. 14
17.

The standard error of the mean of a random sample of size two or more.

A. Always exceeds the population standard deviation.
B. Either exceeds or equals the population standard deviation.
C. is always lower than the population standard deviation
D. is always equal to the population standard deviation.
Answer» D. is always equal to the population standard deviation.
18.

If a person buys one ticket of a State lottery, then the probability that he wins a price is 0.11. If a person buys one ticket each month for five months, what is the probability that he will win least one price?

A. 0.55
B. 0.50
C. 0.44
D. 0.56
Answer» D. 0.56
19.

Which one of the following is not the function of Production Management?

A. Production, Planning and Control
B. Procurement of Raw Materials
C. Market Intelligence and Survey
D. Plant Location and Layout
Answer» D. Plant Location and Layout
20.

The scientific system of collecting and analysis of data pertaining to market is known as

A. Production Research
B. Advertising Research
C. Marketing Research
D. None of the above
Answer» D. None of the above
21.

Which is the basic form of Innovation?

A. Introduction of novel production process
B. Improvement and development of existing process
C. Improvement and development of existing firm
D. All of the above
Answer» E.
22.

The Tax shield would result ini. increase in tax liabilityii. Increase in EPSiii. Decrease in EPSiv. Decrease in tax liabilityCodes:

A. (ii) and (iv)
B. (i) and (iii)
C. (i) and (iv)
D. (iii) and (iv)
Answer» B. (i) and (iii)
23.

Which of the following is not the stage of product life cycle?

A. Introduction
B. Growth
C. Market segmentation
D. Decline
Answer» D. Decline
24.

The Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) establishes the relationship between

A. Risk and EPS
B. Risk and value of the firm
C. Risk and the required rate of return
D. None of the above
Answer» D. None of the above
25.

'Marketing is a human activity directed at satisfying needs and wants through Exchange process'; is the statement of

A. Cundiff ad still
B. Kenneth Andrews
C. Philip Kotler
D. Kishwar S. Kan
Answer» D. Kishwar S. Kan
26.

Which of the following is a main method of issue of stocks?

A. Vendor placing
B. Public issue through Prospectus
C. Private placements
D. None of the above
Answer» C. Private placements
27.

The Internal Rate of Return (IRR) is determined where

A. The Net Present Value is positive
B. The Net Present Value is negative
C. The Net Present Value is zero
D. None of the above
Answer» D. None of the above
28.

The goal of financial management is to

A. Maximise the wealth of Preference Shareholders
B. Maximise the wealth of Debenture holders
C. Maximise the wealth of Equity shareholders
D. All of the above
Answer» D. All of the above
29.

The term Opportunity Cost refers to

A. Variable Cost
B. Short-run cost
C. The cost forgone in favour of production of another product
D. Cost related to an optimum level of production
Answer» D. Cost related to an optimum level of production
30.

Willingness to pay minus actual payment is called

A. Consumer's surplus
B. Producer's surplus
C. Utility cost
D. Supplier's surplus
Answer» B. Producer's surplus
31.

Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:List – I List – IIa. Cost Function 1. Kinky Demand Curveb. Supply Function 2. Isoquantsc. Production Function 3. Engineering Methodd. Oligopoly 4. Factor PricesCodes: a b c d

A. 3 4 2 1
B. 4 3 1 2
C. 3 2 1 4
D. 1 2 3 4
Answer» B. 4 3 1 2
32.

When analysing your business and its environment, it is useful to carefully inspect

A. Threats
B. Opportunities
C. Strengths and weaknesses
D. All of the above
Answer» E.
33.

If two commodities are complementary, then a rise in the price of one commodity will induce

A. A rise in the price of the other commodity
B. An upward shift of demand curve
C. No shift in demand for the other commodity
D. A backward shift in demand for the other commodity
Answer» E.
34.

What is the characteristic of a purely competitive market?

A. Large number of buyers and sellers
B. A few sellers
C. A few buyers
D. Abnormal profit
Answer» B. A few sellers
35.

Which statements are correct?Directors are(i) Trustees of Company(ii) Managers of Company(iii) Agents of Company(iv) Owners of CompanyCodes:

A. (i) and (ii) are correct.
B. (ii) and (iii) are correct.
C. (iii) and (iv) are correct.
D. (i) and (iii) are correct.
Answer» E.
36.

Assertion (AS): Doctrine of Indoor Management protects an outsider dealing with a company from irregularities inside a company.Reason (R): Doctrine of ultra vires protects an outsider dealing with a company for corporate capacity not mentioned in the objects clause.Choose correct answer from below:Codes:

A. (AS) is true, but (R) is false.
B. (AS) is false, but (R) is true.
C. (AS) and (R) are true, but (R) is not an explanation of (AS).
D. (AS) and (R) are true, and (R) is an explanation of (AS).
Answer» D. (AS) and (R) are true, and (R) is an explanation of (AS).
37.

The Rule of 'Absolute Liability' was laid down in the case

A. M.C. Mehta vs. Union of India
B. Madras Railways Co. vs. Zamidar
C. K. Nagireddi vs. State of A.P.
D. Minu B. Mehta vs. Balakrishna
Answer» B. Madras Railways Co. vs. Zamidar
38.

Which statements are correct?(i) Partners have right to profit.(ii) Partners have right to attend general meeting.(iii) Partners have right to interest.(iv) Partners have right to appoint proxy.Codes:

A. (i) and (ii) are correct.
B. (ii) and (iii) are correct.
C. (iii) and (iv) are correct.
D. (i) and (iii) are correct.
Answer» E.
39.

Read the following passage and match the column.No suit to enforce a right arising from a contract shall be initiated in any court by any person suing as a partner in a non-registered firm. Registration of firms is not compulsory. There is no penalty for non-registration. An unregistered firm cannot sue any third person for the enforcement of any right arising from contract.Column P Column Qa. Registration p. No penaltyb. Non-registration q. Optionalc. Partner of a registered firm r. Unenforceability of his rightsd. Partner of a nonregistered firm s. Can sueCodes: a b c d

A. p q r s
B. q p s r
C. q p r s
D. p r q s
Answer» C. q p r s
40.

Consider the following elements:1. Infringement of a legal right2. Legal damage3. Any damage4. Existence of legal rightRight to claim damages in Tort would arise only if:

A. 1 and 2 are present.
B. 1, 2 and 4 are present.
C. 1, 3 and 4 are present.
D. 3 and 4 are present.
Answer» C. 1, 3 and 4 are present.
41.

Which one of the following is correct statement?

A. Every agency is partnership.
B. Every partnership is agency.
C. Every partnership is limited company.
D. Every private limited company is partnership.
Answer» C. Every partnership is limited company.
42.

The 'Convention on Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against Women' was entered into force in the year.

A. 1979
B. 1981
C. 1989
D. 1992
Answer» C. 1989
43.

India is not a party to

A. International Convention on Civil and Political Rights.
B. International Convention on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights.
C. Convention on the Rights of Child.
D. Optional Protocol to International Civil and Political Rights.
Answer» E.
44.

Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer with the help of codes attached.List – I List – IIa. Magna Carta 1) 1948b. International Convention on Civil and Political Rights 2) 1989c. Universal Declaration of Human Rights 3) 1215d. Convention on the Rights of Child 4) 1966Codes: a b c d

A. 3 4 1 2
B. 2 3 1 4
C. 1 2 3 4
D. 4 2 1 3
Answer» B. 2 3 1 4
45.

The Committee on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights was established under ECOSOC Resolution No. 17 adopted on

A. 28th May, 1985
B. 30th May, 1985
C. 26th April, 1986
D. 24th May, 1986
Answer» B. 30th May, 1985
46.

Which of the following statement is true?1) Under English Law Libel is actionable per-se.2) Under Indian Law 'Libel' as well as Slander are actionable per-se.3) Under English Law, only 'Libel' is a crime.4) Under Indian Law both 'Libel' and 'Slander' are crime.

A. 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
B. 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
C. 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
D. 1, 3 and 4 are correct.
Answer» D. 1, 3 and 4 are correct.
47.

Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below:List – I List – IIa. Deficiency of services 1) Section – 12b. Grounds of making a complaint 2) Section 2 (1) (g)c. Findings of the District Forum and relief 3) Indian Oil Corporation Vs. Lakshmi Shankar Narain (1999) 9 S.C.C.2d. An ex-parte unreasoned order can be recalled 4) Section 14Note: Section above are from the Consumer Protection Act.Codes: a b c d

A. 1 2 4 3
B. 2 1 4 3
C. 2 1 3 4
D. 3 4 2 1
Answer» C. 2 1 3 4
48.

Nuisance is a form of Tort

A. Which is actionable per-se.
B. Which is not actionable per-se.
C. Actionable per-se if plaintiff suffers pecuniary loss.
D. None of the above
Answer» C. Actionable per-se if plaintiff suffers pecuniary loss.
49.

Indicate the order in which the following words appear in the definition of 'Human Rights' as given in Section 2d of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.(i) Life(ii) Liberty(iii) Equality(iv) DignityCodes:

A. (i), (iii), (ii) and (iv)
B. (ii), (iii), (iv) and (i)
C. (i), (ii), (iv) and (iii)
D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer» E.
50.

Who is the Chairperson of NHRC?

A. Justice J.S. Verma
B. Justice K.G. Bala Krishnan
C. Justice A.S. Anand
D. Justice M.N. Venkatachalaiah
Answer» C. Justice A.S. Anand