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This section includes 2374 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Embedded Systems knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.
451. |
A driving point impedance with pole at ω = 0 and zero at ω = ∞ must have ____________ term in the numerator and denominator. |
A. | s1+ωn2 |
B. | s2+ωn2 |
C. | s1+ωn1 |
D. | s2+ωn1 |
Answer» C. s1+ωn1 | |
452. |
A driving point impedance with pole at ω = 0 and zero at ω = ∞ must have ___________ term in the denominator polynomial. |
A. | s |
B. | s+3 |
C. | s+1 |
D. | s+2 |
Answer» B. s+3 | |
453. |
A driving point impedance with zero at ω = 0 and pole at ω = ∞ must have ___________ term in the denominator polynomial. |
A. | s2+ωn2 |
B. | s1+ωn1 |
C. | s2+ωn1 |
D. | s1+ωn2 |
Answer» B. s1+ωn1 | |
454. |
A driving point impedance with zero at ω = 0 and pole at ω = ∞ must have ___________ term in the numerator polynomial. |
A. | s+1 |
B. | s |
C. | s+3 |
D. | s+2 |
Answer» C. s+3 | |
455. |
A driving point impedance with zeros at ω = 0, ω = ∞ must have an excess ___________ term in the denominator polynomial. |
A. | s2+ωn1 |
B. | s2+ωn2 |
C. | s1+ωn2 |
D. | s1+ωn1 |
Answer» C. s1+ωn2 | |
456. |
A driving point impedance with zeros at ω = 0, ω = ∞ must have ___________ term in the numerator polynomial. |
A. | s+3 |
B. | s+2 |
C. | s+1 |
D. | s |
Answer» E. | |
457. |
A driving point impedance with poles at ω = 0, ω = ∞ must have excess ___________ term in the numerator polynomial. |
A. | s1+ωn1 |
B. | s1+ωn2 |
C. | s2+ωn2 |
D. | s2+ωn1 |
Answer» D. s2+ωn1 | |
458. |
A driving point impedance with poles at ω = 0, ω = ∞ must have ___________ term in the denominator polynomial. |
A. | s |
B. | s+1 |
C. | s+2 |
D. | s+3 |
Answer» B. s+1 | |
459. |
Based on the location of zeros and poles, a reactive one-port can have ____________ types of frequency response. |
A. | 1 |
B. | 2 |
C. | 3 |
D. | 4 |
Answer» E. | |
460. |
Given below is the diagram of the drift tube of a tandem quadrupole/time of flight instrument. Identify the unmarked component. |
A. | Nebuliser |
B. | Filter |
C. | Chopper |
D. | Acceleration lens |
Answer» E. | |
461. |
A tandem mass spectrometer has which of the following analysers? |
A. | Time of flight mass analyser |
B. | Magnetic deflection analyser |
C. | Radiofrequency analyser |
D. | Quadrupole analyser |
Answer» B. Magnetic deflection analyser | |
462. |
All ions with the same number of charges will have __________ |
A. | Same kinetic energy |
B. | Different kinetic energies |
C. | Same mass |
D. | Different mass |
Answer» B. Different kinetic energies | |
463. |
In MIKES experiments which of the following are measured? |
A. | Product ions |
B. | Product ion kinetic energies |
C. | Product ions mass to charge ratio |
D. | Product ions masses |
Answer» C. Product ions mass to charge ratio | |
464. |
What does the acronym ‘MIKES’ stand for? |
A. | Mass-analysed ion kinetic energy spectrometer |
B. | Mass-based induced kinetic energy spectrometer |
C. | Mass invasive kinetic electric spectrometer |
D. | Mass-analyser in a kinetic energy-type spectrometer |
Answer» B. Mass-based induced kinetic energy spectrometer | |
465. |
The mass-selected ions are activated in which of the following ways that cause them to fall apart to produce product ions? |
A. | Collisional activation |
B. | Evaporational activation |
C. | Inert gas activation |
D. | Thermal activation |
Answer» B. Evaporational activation | |
466. |
Tandem mass spectroscopy combines which of the following devices? |
A. | Mass spectrometer and gas-solid chromatograph |
B. | Mass spectrometer and gas-liquid chromatograph |
C. | Mass spectrometer and gas chromatograph |
D. | Mass spectrometer and mass spectrometer |
Answer» E. | |
467. |
The third system of forces is composed of ___________ |
A. | Varying upward pressure and Varying downward pressure |
B. | Distributed load |
C. | None of the mentioned |
D. | All of the mentioned |
Answer» E. | |
468. |
The resultant earth pressure at any point of a raft is considered to be ___________ |
A. | w + mw |
B. | (1-m)w |
C. | w-mw |
D. | (1-w)m |
Answer» B. (1-m)w | |
469. |
The first system of forces consist of _____________ |
A. | Difference between actual column loads |
B. | Varying distributed load acting downwards |
C. | Column support reaction acting downwards |
D. | All of the mentioned |
Answer» D. All of the mentioned | |
470. |
In effect of shape method, the columns loads and bearing pressure distribution are divided in to ___________ system of forces. |
A. | Two |
B. | Four |
C. | Three |
D. | Five |
Answer» D. Five | |
471. |
The effect of shape is based on ____________principal. |
A. | Principal of superposition |
B. | System of forces |
C. | Hooke’s law |
D. | Principal of center of gravity |
Answer» B. System of forces | |
472. |
The value of Ks(modulus of subgrade reaction) can be found out, based on the effect of ___________ |
A. | Size and Shape |
B. | Properties |
C. | None of the mentioned |
D. | All of the mentioned |
Answer» B. Properties | |
473. |
The modulus of subgrade reaction is applicable only when the load is applied through _________ |
A. | Plate of size 30 ×30 cm and Beam 30 cm wide on soil area |
B. | Plate size is 10 × 10 cm |
C. | None of the mentioned |
D. | All of the mentioned |
Answer» B. Plate size is 10 × 10 cm | |
474. |
Both conventional and flexible method can be used only in the case when _________ |
A. | Foundation is laid on cohesive soil |
B. | Soil pressure is low |
C. | Foundation is flexible |
D. | Load is concentrated on larger area |
Answer» D. Load is concentrated on larger area | |
475. |
In truly elastic foundation, the soil is assumed to be obey ____________ |
A. | Terzaghi’s theory |
B. | Hooke’s law |
C. | Skempton’s theory |
D. | All of the mentioned |
Answer» C. Skempton’s theory | |
476. |
The actual reinforcement provided should be ___________ of that worked out theoretically by conventional method. |
A. | Twice |
B. | Thrice |
C. | Lesser |
D. | None of the mentioned |
Answer» B. Thrice | |
477. |
The possible method adopted for designing of raft foundation is ___________ |
A. | Conventional method |
B. | Elastic method |
C. | Soil line method |
D. | All of the mentioned |
Answer» E. | |
478. |
According to IS codes, the maximum differential settlements should not exceed ___________ in the foundation on clayey soil. |
A. | 25 mm |
B. | 100 mm |
C. | 25 mm |
D. | 40 mm |
Answer» D. 40 mm | |
479. |
In the formation of phosgene from carbon monoxide and chlorine, which of the following is rate determining? |
A. | Decomposition of chlorine |
B. | Formation of COCl. |
C. | Reaction of COCl. with Cl2 |
D. | Decomposition of CO2 |
Answer» D. Decomposition of CO2 | |
480. |
Formation of hydrogen iodide from the corresponding elements is a ____ |
A. | Single step mechanism |
B. | Two step mechanism |
C. | Three step mechanism |
D. | Four step mechanism |
Answer» C. Three step mechanism | |
481. |
State true or false.Decomposition of nitrogen pentoxide follows second order mechanism, assuming that the kinetics is controlled by a single step mechanism. |
A. | True |
B. | False |
Answer» C. | |
482. |
State true or false.Gas phase decomposition of N2O follows first order mechanism for low concentrations of N2O and second order mechanism for high concentrations of N2O. |
A. | True |
B. | False |
Answer» B. False | |
483. |
At very low concentrations of azomethane, its decomposition follows which order? |
A. | First order |
B. | Zero order |
C. | Third order |
D. | Second order |
Answer» E. | |
484. |
The order of the reaction involving the conversion of ozone to oxygen is ____ |
A. | Zero order |
B. | First order |
C. | Second order |
D. | Third order |
Answer» C. Second order | |
485. |
The reaction involving oxidation of nitric oxide to nitrous oxide follows the mechanism ____ |
A. | \(\frac{-dO_2}{dt}\) = k[NO2]2[O2] |
B. | \(\frac{-dO_2}{dt}\) = k[NO2][O2] |
C. | \(\frac{-dO_2}{dt}\) = k[NO2]2[O2]2 |
D. | \(\frac{-dO_2}{dt}\) = k[NO2][O2]2 |
Answer» B. \(\frac{-dO_2}{dt}\) = k[NO2][O2] | |
486. |
An assumption of Steady State Approximation is ____ |
A. | Reaction occurs without the formation of intermediates |
B. | Catalyst does not accelerate reaction rate |
C. | One of the intermediates in the reaction is consumed as quickly as it is generated |
D. | Equilibrium state is attained at the end of a reaction |
Answer» D. Equilibrium state is attained at the end of a reaction | |
487. |
The rate determining step of a series of reactions is the one ____ |
A. | That is fastest |
B. | That is slowest |
C. | That does not contribute to the reaction |
D. | That does not occur |
Answer» C. That does not contribute to the reaction | |
488. |
For the parallel reaction A → B and A → C, of rate constants k1 and k2 respectively, both reactions of order 1, the rate expression is given as ____a) (-rA) = k1CA + k2CAb) (-rA) = k1CA – k2CAc) (-rA) = k2CAd) (-r |
A. | (-rA) = k1CA + k2CA |
B. | (-rA) = k1CA – k2CA |
C. | (-rA) = k2CA |
D. | (-rA) = k1CA |
Answer» B. (-rA) = k1CA – k2CA | |
489. |
Are these statements about the Discontinuous pressure filters true?Statement 1: Application of large pressure difference.Statement 2: Economical and rapid filtration. |
A. | True, False |
B. | True, True |
C. | False, True |
D. | False, False |
Answer» C. False, True | |
490. |
What is the main driving force for the filtrate flow? |
A. | Difference between the atmospheric pressure and the pressure in the equipment |
B. | Atmospheric pressure only |
C. | Partial pressure only |
D. | Difference between the atmospheric pressure and the partial pressure |
Answer» B. Atmospheric pressure only | |
491. |
What law is applicable when liquid velocity through the pores is low and pore size is small? |
A. | Poiseuille’s law |
B. | Newton’s law |
C. | Gauss’s law |
D. | Dalton’s law |
Answer» B. Newton’s law | |
492. |
What is capillary pressure curve? |
A. | A plot of saturation of the cake versus pressure difference |
B. | A plot of saturation of the cake versus temperature difference |
C. | A plot of concentration of the filtrate versus temperature difference |
D. | A plot of concentration of the filtrate versus pressure difference |
Answer» B. A plot of saturation of the cake versus temperature difference | |
493. |
Is filter press used to decrease pump pressure? |
A. | True |
B. | False |
Answer» C. | |
494. |
When does the pressure difference increase in filtration? |
A. | If the constant rate is maintained |
B. | If the cake thickness decreases |
C. | If the cake thickness increases |
D. | There is no pressure difference throughout the process |
Answer» B. If the cake thickness decreases | |
495. |
How does pressure drop at initial stage of filtration? |
A. | Pressure drop is small |
B. | Pressure drop is large |
C. | Does not depend on pressure drop |
D. | At equilibrium throughout the process |
Answer» B. Pressure drop is large | |
496. |
Are these statements about the pressure drop in filtration true?Statement 1: Due to the increase in the solids deposit in the pores.Statement 2: For constant solids concentration at the inlet increase in this pressure drop with time is constant. |
A. | True, False |
B. | True, True |
C. | False, True |
D. | False, False |
Answer» C. False, True | |
497. |
What happens when the net driving force is negative? |
A. | Net fluid filtration takes place |
B. | Net fluid reabsorption takes place |
C. | Net fluid filtration stops |
D. | Net fluid filtration stops |
Answer» B. Net fluid reabsorption takes place | |
498. |
What happens when the net driving force is positive? |
A. | Net fluid filtration takes place |
B. | Net fluid reabsorption takes place |
C. | Net fluid filtration stops |
D. | Net fluid filtration stops |
Answer» B. Net fluid reabsorption takes place | |
499. |
The top view, front view and side view of a triangle parallel to vertical plane, circle parallel to profile plane and rectangle parallel to horizontal plane respectively are ___________ |
A. | line, circle, line |
B. | triangle, line, rectangle |
C. | triangle, line, line |
D. | line, line, line |
Answer» E. | |
500. |
A square of side 10 cm is held parallel to vertical plane and one diagonal is making 45 degrees with xy reference plane. The length of line in top view will be ________ |
A. | 10 cm |
B. | 14.14 cm |
C. | 7.07 cm |
D. | 0 cm |
Answer» B. 14.14 cm | |