MCQOPTIONS
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| 1. |
A 42 year old male with a past history of a manic episode presents with an illness of 1 month duration characterized by depressed mood, anhedonia and profound psychomotor retardation. The most appropriate management strategy is prescribing a combination of - |
| A. | Antidepressants and mood stabilizers |
| B. | Antipsychotics and antidepressants |
| C. | Antidepressants and benzodiazepines |
| D. | Antipsychotics and mood stabilizers |
| Answer» B. Antipsychotics and antidepressants | |