1.

A 42 year old male with a past history of a manic episode presents with an illness of 1 month duration characterized by depressed mood, anhedonia and profound psychomotor retardation. The most appropriate management strategy is prescribing a combination of -

A. Antidepressants and mood stabilizers
B. Antipsychotics and antidepressants
C. Antidepressants and benzodiazepines
D. Antipsychotics and mood stabilizers
Answer» B. Antipsychotics and antidepressants


Discussion

No Comment Found

Related MCQs