Explore topic-wise MCQs in Biology.

This section includes 697 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Biology knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

Regarding ECG changes, which is CORRECT?

A. hypernatraemia is associated with low voltage complexes
B. the first change in hyperkalaemia is prolongation of QRS
C. with hypokalaemia, the resting membrane potential decreases
D. in hyperkalaemia, the heart stops in systole
E. in hypercalcaemia, myocardial contractility is enhanced
Answer» F.
2.

Regarding jugular pressure waves:

A. the v wave denotes the increased atrial pressure due to the bulging of the tricuspid valve during isovolumetric ventricular contraction
B. in tricuspid insufficiency, there is a giant A wave with each ventricular systole
C. atrial premature beats produce an A wave
D. the v wave occurs during systole
E. a giant C wave ( cannon wave ) may be seen in complete heart block
Answer» D. the v wave occurs during systole
3.

What factor does not alter cardiac output?

A. standing up
B. sleeping
C. eating
D. exercising
E. pregnancy
Answer» C. eating
4.

What is the O2 consumption of a beating heart at rest?

A. 2ml/100g/min
B. 9ml/g/min
C. 2ml/g/min
D. 2L/100g/min
E. 9ml/100g/min
Answer» F.
5.

Regarding percentages of blood volume in the body:

A. the heart has 5%
B. the pulmonary circulation has the greatest percentage
C. the venous circulation has 35%
D. the aorta has 2%
E. capillaries have 20%
Answer» E. capillaries have 20%
6.

What is a biological action of endothelin?

A. dilates vascular smooth muscle
B. produces bronchodilation
C. increase GFR and renal blood flow
D. evokes positive inotropic and chronotropic effects on myocardium
E. inhibits gluconeogenesis
Answer» E. inhibits gluconeogenesis
7.

What inhibits gene transcription for endothelin-1 secretion:

A. nitric oxide
B. angiotensin II
C. insulin
D. growth factors
E. catecholamines
Answer» B. angiotensin II
8.

Regarding NO synthase:

A. it synthesises nitrous oxide from arginine
B. there are 2 isoforms
C. it is inactivated by haemoglobin
D. NOS-1 is activated by cytokines
E. NOS-2 is in endothelial cells
Answer» D. NOS-1 is activated by cytokines
9.

Which is NOT a baroreceptor site?

A. right atria at the entrance of SVC and IVC
B. aortic arch
C. left atria at the entrance of the pulmonary veins
D. pulmonary circulation
E. carotid body
Answer» F.
10.

Regarding cerebrospinal fluid:

A. the total volume of CSF is 300mL
B. CSF is absorbed through the choroid plexus
C. the average CSF pressure is 220m-CSF
D. CSF has a higher pH than plasma
E. it contains very low levels of cholesterol relative to plasma
Answer» F.
11.

Which substance has equal concentrations in CSF and plasma?

A. Ca2+
B. K+
C. Na+
D. PCO2
E. glucose
Answer» D. PCO2
12.

What factor dilates the arterioles?

A. decreased local temperature
B. myogenic theory of autoregulation
C. angiotensin II
D. increased discharge of noradrenergic vasomotor nerve
E. histamine
Answer» F.
13.

Which vessel has the lowest PO2?

A. maternal artery
B. maternal vein
C. uterine vein
D. umbilical vein
E. umbilical artery
Answer» F.
14.

Atrial systole:

A. causes a decrease in atrial pressure
B. causes the A wave of the jugular pulse
C. causes the C wave of the jugular pulse
D. causes the V wave of the jugular pulse
E. causes the dicrotic notch of the aortic pulse
Answer» C. causes the C wave of the jugular pulse
15.

During exercise:

A. diastolic BP increases more than systolic BP
B. regional blood flow to the brain doubles
C. cardiac output may increase 15-fold
D. after exercise, BP takes longer to return to normal than heart rate
E. O2 consumption of skeletal muscle may increase 100-fold
Answer» F.
16.

Regarding cardiac electrical properties:

A. all cardiac cells have the same resting membrane potential
B. cholinergic fibres act predominantly by blocking tonic sympathetic input
C. discharge rates of pacemaker tissue does not change significantly with temperature
D. the bundle of HIS is not the most rapidly conducting part of the conducting system
E. the last parts of myocardium to depolarise normally do not include the septum
Answer» E. the last parts of myocardium to depolarise normally do not include the septum
17.

The depolarisation of cardiac muscle cells is characterised by:

A. a slow depolarisation, a plateau then a rapid repolarisation
B. initial depolarisation due to a slow Na+ influx
C. repolarisation due to K+ efflux through two types of K+ channels
D. a plateau phase due to slowly opening Na+ channels
E. calcium efflux during the plateau phase
Answer» E. calcium efflux during the plateau phase
18.

Features of the venous system include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. total volume is approximately 55% of the total vascular volume
B. compliance approximately 25 times the arterial side
C. total volume of venules is twice the total capillary volume
D. valves in the cerebral circulation
E. substantial venoconstriction in response to noradrenaline
Answer» E. substantial venoconstriction in response to noradrenaline
19.

Abnormalities causing ECG changes in myocardial infarction include:

A. delayed repolarisation early on
B. delayed depolarisation
C. increased resting membrane potential
D. TQ segment elevation
E. current flow away from the infarct
Answer» C. increased resting membrane potential
20.

Regarding the inputs into the vasomotor centre:

A. baroreceptors causes stimulation
B. chemoreceptors cause inhibition
C. baroreceptors provide significant input below 70mmhg mean arterial pressure
D. atrial stretch receptors inhibit the vasomotor centre
E. direct inputs include pO2
Answer» E. direct inputs include pO2
21.

Arteriolar constriction is caused by:

A. serotonin
B. ANP
C. NO
D. K+
E. histamine
Answer» B. ANP
22.

CSF:

A. volume is about 600ml
B. normal pressure is 5-10cm CSF
C. has a higher concentration of creatinine than plasma
D. has a higher concentration of urea than plasma
E. is formed solely in the choroid plexus
Answer» D. has a higher concentration of urea than plasma
23.

During systole:

A. the peak left ventricular pressure is 160mmHg
B. contraction of the atria propels 70% of the ventricular filling
C. the period of isovolumetric ventricular contraction is 0.5sec????
D. the end systolic ventricular volume is about 50mL
E. coronary blood flow to subendocardial portions of the left ventricle occur only in systole
Answer» E. coronary blood flow to subendocardial portions of the left ventricle occur only in systole
24.

Regarding the conduction system of the heart:

A. the right bundle branch (of HIS) divides into anterior and posterior fasicles
B. the AV node contains P cells
C. myocardial fibres have a resting membrane potential of -60mV
D. action potential in the SA and AV nodes are largely due to Na+ influx
E. there are two types of K+ channels in pacemaker tissue transient and long acting
Answer» C. myocardial fibres have a resting membrane potential of -60mV
25.

Regarding cardiac output:

A. energy of contraction is proportional to the initial length of the cardiac muscle fibre is Fick s Law of the heart
B. cardiac index is the correlation between resting cardiac output and height
C. sleep decreases cardiac output
D. basal O2 consumption by the myocardium is 2ml/g/min
E. standing normally decreases the length of ventricular cardiac muscle fibres
Answer» F.
26.

Regarding surfactant, which statement is INCORRECT?

A. it predominantly consists of phospholipid
B. it is increased by long-term 100% oxygen therapy
C. hydrophobic tails face into alveolar lumen
D. it is decreased by cigarette smoking
E. pulmonary oedema is a consequence of its absence
Answer» C. hydrophobic tails face into alveolar lumen
27.

Regarding renal handling of substances:

A. urea is filtered, but not secreted
B. most sodium is resorbed in the loop of Henle
C. creatinine is not filtered, but is resorbed
D. potassium is filtered, but not secreted
E. chloride is secreted and resorbed
Answer» B. most sodium is resorbed in the loop of Henle
28.

Regarding nephrons permeability:

A. glomerular capillaries are 100 times more permeable than skeletal muscle capillaries
B. anionic substances are more permeable than neutral substances
C. N (?normal) glomerular concentration of albumin is 0.2% of plasma concentration
D. neutral substances are freely filtered with diameters < 8nm
E. 100mg/d of protein is filtered at the glomerulus
Answer» D. neutral substances are freely filtered with diameters < 8nm
29.

Where is the macula densa located?

A. afferent arteriole
B. efferent arteriole
C. proximal convoluted tubule
D. thick ascending limb of loop of Henle
E. distal convoluted tubule
Answer» E. distal convoluted tubule
30.

Triiodothyronine:

A. is less potent than thyroxine
B. deficiency causes yellow skin due to keratin buildup
C. acts via a tyrosine kinase predominantly
D. causes an increase in Na+ /K+ ATPase activity
E. in both, deficiency but no excess leads to muscle weakness
Answer» F.
31.

The amount of O2 in blood with a PaO2 of 100mmHg is:

A. 0.003ml O2/100ml
B. 0.3ml O2/100ml
C. 3ml O2/100ml
D. 3ml O2/mL
E. 0.3ml O2/L
Answer» C. 3ml O2/100ml
32.

Regarding surfactant:

A. infant respiratory distress syndrome can be adequately treated with administration of phospholipids alone
B. cigarette smokers have the same amount of surfactant as non-smokers
C. the phospholipid film is formed by tubular myelin
D. infant respiratory distress syndrome is caused by insufficient surfactant that prevents the alveoli from expanding at first inspiratory effort
E. formation of the phospholipid film is greatly facilitated by the carbohydrate in surfactant
Answer» D. infant respiratory distress syndrome is caused by insufficient surfactant that prevents the alveoli from expanding at first inspiratory effort
33.

Which abolishes automatic respiration? Destruction of:

A. pre-Bottzinger complexes
B. ventral gp respiratory neurons
C. dorsal gp respiratory neurons
D. section at the inferior border of the pons
E. transaction rostral to the pons
Answer» B. ventral gp respiratory neurons
34.

Normally the FEV1 is what percentage of FVC?

A. 50%
B. 60%
C. 70%
D. 80%
E. 90%
Answer» E. 90%
35.

Regarding the glottis:

A. when laryngeal adductors are paralysed there is inspiratory stridor
B. abductors contract early in inspiration
C. when abductors are paralysed, aspiration pneumonia may result
D. the adductors are supplied by the vagus nerves, the abduction by the hypoglossal nerve
E. in animals with bilateral cervical vagotomy, pulmonary oedema is purely secondary to aspiration
Answer» C. when abductors are paralysed, aspiration pneumonia may result
36.

Myosin binding sites on actin are normally covered by:

A. troponin I
B. troponin C
C. troponin T
D. tropomyosin
E. ryanodine molecule
Answer» E. ryanodine molecule
37.

Why is NSAIDs use a relative contraindication in patients with chronic renal failure?

A. direct toxic effects on proximal tubule
B. direct toxic effects on collecting ducts
C. indirect toxic effects on loop of Henle
D. inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis which is an important regulator of renal blood flow in arterioles
E. inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis which is an important regulator of renal blood flow in main renal arteries
Answer» E. inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis which is an important regulator of renal blood flow in main renal arteries
38.

Noradrenaline:

A. is the main neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic nervous system
B. acts as sympathetic neuromuscular junctions in skeletal muscle and vascular smooth muscle
C. is secreted by the adrenal medulla
D. causes pupillary constriction
E. reduces blood pressure
Answer» D. causes pupillary constriction
39.

Carbonic anhydrase is not inhibited by:

A. cyanide
B. zinc
C. azide
D. sulphide
E. collecting duct
Answer» C. azide
40.

The reticular activating system:

A. has depressed conduction during anaesthesia
B. is located in the pons
C. is a simple collection of parallel nerve fibres
D. has no input from the cranial nerves
E. is electrically isolated from the cerebral cortex
Answer» B. is located in the pons
41.

Regarding thermoceptors:

A. there are more warm receptors than cold receptors
B. cold receptors respond to 10-38 C
C. afferents for cold receptors are C fibres only
D. afferents found in the ventral spinothalamic tract
E. respond to the temperature gradient across the skin
Answer» D. afferents found in the ventral spinothalamic tract
42.

Regarding rods and cones:

A. Na+ channels are closed in the dark
B. light striking the outer segments results in a depolarising receptor potential
C. the receptor potentials are all-or-nothing
D. rhodopsin is a serpentine receptor
E. acetylcholine is released from the synaptic terminal
Answer» D. rhodopsin is a serpentine receptor
43.

Regarding neurotoxins, which statement is INCORRECT?

A. tetrodotoxin is a sodium channel blocker
B. tetraethylammonium is a potassium channel blocker
C. tetanospasmin interferes with GABA release
D. botulinum toxin blocks release of acetylcholine
E. latrotoxin causes explosive release of acetylcholine
Answer» D. botulinum toxin blocks release of acetylcholine
44.

Acetylcholine:

A. is a major neurotransmitter in the spinal cord
B. is degraded within the neuromuscular end-plate by dehydration
C. is important in the stimulation of pancreatic function
D. is the neurotransmitter involved in vagal stimulation of the heart
E. is antagonised by neostigmine
Answer» D. is the neurotransmitter involved in vagal stimulation of the heart
45.

A motor unit is made up of:

A. a flexor muscle and an extensor muscle
B. a single skeletal muscle and all the motor neurons that supply it
C. a single motor neuron and all the muscle fibres it innervates
D. a large bundle of muscle fibres
E. all the motor neurons in which responses are observed after maximal stimulation
Answer» D. a large bundle of muscle fibres
46.

In skeletal muscle:

A. thick filaments which are made up of myosin and tropomyosin are lined up to form A bands
B. the dark A band has a light H band in its centre which in turn has an M line in its middle
C. think filaments are made up of actin, tropomyosin and troponin and form the H band
D. Z lines are connected to the thick filaments
E. during contraction, the width of the A band reduces
Answer» D. Z lines are connected to the thick filaments
47.

Microglia:

A. are involved with myelin production
B. are scavenger cells
C. are performed in the brain
D. are important in GABA uptake
E. induce capillaries to form tight junctions and thus the blood brain barrier
Answer» C. are performed in the brain
48.

Regarding denervation:

A. it causes skeletal muscle hypertrophy
B. does not lead to fibrillation
C. causes hyposensitivity to acetylcholine in skeletal muscle
D. smooth muscle is able to contract if it occurs in vivo
E. causes fasciculations
Answer» E. causes fasciculations
49.

Regarding decerebration:

A. decerebration produces spinal shock
B. decerebrate rigidity is spasticity due to diffuse facilitation of stretch reflex
C. there is increased rate of discharge in the afferent neurons
D. spasticity produced by decerebration is more marked in flexor muscles
E. most commonly produces upper limb flexion and lower limb extension
Answer» C. there is increased rate of discharge in the afferent neurons
50.

A sarcomere:

A. contains two separate halves of an A-band and an I-band
B. is the space between two A-bands
C. is between two Z-lines
D. has the T-system of the sarcotubular system at sarcomere junctions
E. contracts when the troponin molecule binds to the myosin head
Answer» D. has the T-system of the sarcotubular system at sarcomere junctions