MCQOPTIONS
Saved Bookmarks
MCQOPTIONS
This section includes 137 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Biology knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.
| 51. |
Erethism is seen in which of the following intoxications |
| A. | Lead |
| B. | Mercury |
| C. | Arsine gas |
| D. | Penicillamine |
| E. | Arsenic |
| Answer» C. Arsine gas | |
| 52. |
All of the following are NSAIDs EXCEPT |
| A. | Sulindac |
| B. | Piroxicam |
| C. | Gemfibrozil |
| D. | Ketorolac |
| E. | Diflunisal |
| Answer» D. Ketorolac | |
| 53. |
Which of the following has a high extraction ratio |
| A. | Trimethoprim |
| B. | Valproic acid |
| C. | Lignocaine |
| D. | Metronidazole |
| E. | Diazepam |
| Answer» D. Metronidazole | |
| 54. |
Drugs which enhance other drug metabolism include all of the following EXCEPT |
| A. | Rifampicin |
| B. | Ketoconazole |
| C. | Phenobarbital |
| D. | Griseofulvin |
| E. | Phenytoin |
| Answer» C. Phenobarbital | |
| 55. |
Heparin and protamine used together is an example of |
| A. | Physiologic antagonism |
| B. | Chemical antagonism |
| C. | Partial agonism |
| D. | Irreversible antagonism |
| E. | Agonal agonism |
| Answer» C. Partial agonism | |
| 56. |
The half life of a drug with a Vd of 200ml/70kg and clearance of 10 /hr/70kg is |
| A. | 10 hours |
| B. | 14 hours |
| C. | 20 hours |
| D. | 40 hours |
| E. | Indeterminate |
| Answer» C. 20 hours | |
| 57. |
What is the largest size spontaneous primary pneumothorax that can be managaed without aspiration or thoracostomy? |
| A. | 10% |
| B. | 15% |
| C. | 20% |
| D. | 30% |
| E. | 35% |
| Answer» D. 30% | |
| 58. |
Which bug makes up 50% of hospital acquired pneumonia? |
| A. | pneumococcus |
| B. | staph aureus |
| C. | gm ve bacilli |
| D. | legionella |
| E. | chlamydia psittici |
| Answer» D. legionella | |
| 59. |
What if the role of aspiration in traumatic pneumothoraces? |
| A. | there is no role |
| B. | first line management in small pneumathoraces only |
| C. | it should be tried in all pneumathoraces as long as there is no respiratory compromise |
| D. | it can be repeated twice before thoracostomy tube is considered |
| E. | none of the above |
| Answer» B. first line management in small pneumathoraces only | |
| 60. |
In which sort of pneumoathorax is aspiration likely to be most successful? |
| A. | traumatic |
| B. | secondary |
| C. | primary |
| D. | iatrogenic |
| E. | equally effective in all of the above |
| Answer» D. iatrogenic | |
| 61. |
Whatis the recurrence rate of primary spontaneous pneumathoraces? |
| A. | 10% |
| B. | 20% |
| C. | 30% |
| D. | 40% |
| E. | 50% |
| Answer» F. | |
| 62. |
Which of the list below is not the cause of an exudative pleural effusion? |
| A. | viral pneumonia |
| B. | pancreatitis |
| C. | TB |
| D. | Malignancy |
| E. | Nephrotic syndrome |
| Answer» F. | |
| 63. |
As a generalization, at what PEFR should someone be admitted? |
| A. | PEFR<25% pretreatment and <40% posttreatment |
| B. | PEFR<10% pretreatment and <20% posttreatment |
| C. | PEFR<40% pretreatment and <60% posttreatment |
| D. | PEFR<50% pretreatment and <70% posttreatment |
| E. | PEFR is of no value in this decision |
| Answer» B. PEFR<10% pretreatment and <20% posttreatment | |
| 64. |
Which is not a biochemical feature of transudative pleural effusions? |
| A. | protein<30g/l |
| B. | pleural protein:serum protein <0.5 |
| C. | pleural LDH : seurm LDH < 0.6 |
| D. | pleural glucose< serum glucose |
| E. | none of the above are biochemical features |
| Answer» E. none of the above are biochemical features | |
| 65. |
Which is not a possible cause of haemoptysis? |
| A. | PE |
| B. | Mitral stenosis |
| C. | Pneumonia |
| D. | Aortic stenosis |
| E. | Neoplasm |
| Answer» E. Neoplasm | |
| 66. |
Which of the list below is not a cause of a transudative pleural effusion? |
| A. | CCF |
| B. | PE |
| C. | SLE/RA |
| D. | Cirrhosis |
| E. | Nephritic syndrome |
| Answer» D. Cirrhosis | |
| 67. |
Which drug/intervention is of no proven benefit in management of acute severe asthma in adults? |
| A. | steroids |
| B. | magnesium |
| C. | steroids |
| D. | CPAP |
| E. | Aminophylline |
| Answer» F. | |
| 68. |
Which statement is false about haemoptysis? |
| A. | massive haemoptysis is greater than 600ml in 24 hours |
| B. | a CXR is normal in about 25 % of cases |
| C. | in any four cases, one is likely to be due to nonteuberculous infection, one due to neoplasia, one due to rarer causes and one idiopathic |
| D. | in massive hemoptysis the pt should be nursed bleeding lung up |
| E. | if possible a double lumen tube should be reserved for post brochoscopy as a rigid bronchoscope cannot be passed down it |
| Answer» E. if possible a double lumen tube should be reserved for post brochoscopy as a rigid bronchoscope cannot be passed down it | |
| 69. |
Which is FALSE regarding CPAP in acute asthma? |
| A. | it decreases the work of breathing |
| B. | it causes bronchodilation and decreases airway resistance |
| C. | it improves gas exchange if used alone in severe asthma |
| D. | it may be an effective alternative to ETT when maximal pharmacotherapy is used |
| E. | it reduces the cardiovascular impact of changes in pressures caused by asthma |
| Answer» D. it may be an effective alternative to ETT when maximal pharmacotherapy is used | |
| 70. |
Which drug/intervention is rarely used acutely in the acute setting of exacerbation of COAD? |
| A. | salbutamol |
| B. | CPAP |
| C. | Aminophylline |
| D. | Steroids |
| E. | Ipratropium |
| Answer» D. Steroids | |
| 71. |
Which statement is incorrect regarding the acute management of exacerbation of COAD? |
| A. | support for the widespread use of steroids is limited |
| B. | support for the use of salbutamol combined with ipratropium is limited |
| C. | B agonists are widely used assuming the possiblility of a small reversible component to the airflow obstruction |
| D. | Support for the widespread use of CPAP and BiPAP is minimal |
| E. | Theophylline is rarely used acutely |
| Answer» E. Theophylline is rarely used acutely | |
| 72. |
Regarding pulmonary emboli, which statement is correct? |
| A. | a normal Aa gradient excludes a PE |
| B. | a paO2>80 excludes a PE |
| C. | a normal CXR excludes a PE |
| D. | anticoagulation reduces mortality from PE from 30% to 10% |
| E. | all of the above are correct |
| Answer» E. all of the above are correct | |
| 73. |
With regards to PE which statement is CORRECT? |
| A. | embolectomy has a better outcome than thrombolysis in massive PE |
| B. | streptokinase is more effective with lower side effects than tPA in massive PE |
| C. | LMWH is probably as effective as unfractionated heparin |
| D. | TOE is sensitive for peripheral emboli |
| E. | Spiral CT angiography is better at detecting peripheral clots than central |
| Answer» D. TOE is sensitive for peripheral emboli | |
| 74. |
Concerning toxicity of antibiotics |
| A. | Enamel dysplasia is common with aminoglycosides |
| B. | Grey Baby Syndrome occurs with rifampicin use |
| C. | A disulfiram like reaction can occur with macrolides |
| D. | Haemolytic anaemias can occur with sulphonamide use |
| E. | Nephritis is the most common adverse reaction with isoniazid |
| Answer» E. Nephritis is the most common adverse reaction with isoniazid | |
| 75. |
Regarding toxicity of antibiotics |
| A. | Enamel dysplasia is common with aminoglycosides |
| B. | Gray baby syndrome occurs with rifampicin use |
| C. | Haemolytic anaemias can occur with sulphonamide use |
| D. | Nephritis is the most common adverse reaction with isoniazid |
| E. | Disulfiram like reaction can occur with macrolides |
| Answer» D. Nephritis is the most common adverse reaction with isoniazid | |
| 76. |
All of the following antibiotics bind to the 50S subunit of the ribosome thereby inhibiting proteinsynthesis EXCEPT |
| A. | Chloramphenicol |
| B. | Erythromycin |
| C. | Linezolid |
| D. | Doxycycline |
| E. | Clindamycin |
| Answer» E. Clindamycin | |
| 77. |
Ribosomal resistance occurs with |
| A. | Sulphonamides |
| B. | Penicillin |
| C. | Fluoroquinolones |
| D. | Macrolides |
| E. | Trimethoprim |
| Answer» E. Trimethoprim | |
| 78. |
Resistance to B lactams |
| A. | Can be due to an efflux pump |
| B. | Is most commonly due to modification of the target PBPs |
| C. | Does not involve penetration of drug to target PBPs |
| D. | Infers resistance only to penicillinc |
| E. | Can involve up to 5 different B lactamases |
| Answer» B. Is most commonly due to modification of the target PBPs | |
| 79. |
Regarding resistance to antibiotics |
| A. | Penicillinases cannot inactivate cephalosporins |
| B. | Macrolides can be inactivated by transferases |
| C. | Mutation of aminoglycoside binding site is its main mechanism of resistance |
| D. | Tetracycline resistance is a marker for multidrug resistance |
| E. | Resistance to antibiotics is rarely plasmid encoded |
| Answer» D. Tetracycline resistance is a marker for multidrug resistance | |
| 80. |
Inhalational anaesthetics |
| A. | Enflurane is proconvulsant |
| B. | Isoflurane is the inhalational agent of choice in patients with active IHD |
| C. | Nitrous oxide is a useful adjunct to volatile anaesthetic use in women in the first trimester of pregnancy |
| D. | Halothane has a MAC value of 75% making it less potent than desflurane |
| E. | Desflurane is extensively metabolised via the liver |
| Answer» B. Isoflurane is the inhalational agent of choice in patients with active IHD | |
| 81. |
Regarding inhaled anaesthetics |
| A. | They reduce MAP in direct proportion to their alveolar concentration |
| B. | Nitrous oxide has a relatively low MAC |
| C. | Halogenated agents have a lower brain:blood partition coefficient |
| D. | Nitrous oxide causes a decrease in tidal volume and an increase in respiratory rate |
| E. | They decrease the metabolic rate in the brain by decreasing cerebral blood flow |
| Answer» B. Nitrous oxide has a relatively low MAC | |
| 82. |
The cephalosporin with the highest activity against gram positive cocci is |
| A. | Cefaclor |
| B. | Cephalothin |
| C. | Cefuroxime |
| D. | Cefepime |
| E. | Cefotaxime |
| Answer» C. Cefuroxime | |
| 83. |
Resistance to Penicillin and other lactams is due to |
| A. | Modification of target PBPs |
| B. | Impaired penetration of drug to target PBPs |
| C. | Presence of an efflux pump |
| D. | Inactivation of antibiotics by lactamase |
| E. | All of the above |
| Answer» F. | |
| 84. |
Regarding non-depolarising muscle relaxants |
| A. | Pancuronium is eliminated via the kidney |
| B. | Roacuronium is an isoquinolone derivative |
| C. | Roacuronium undergoes Hoffman elimination |
| D. | Vecuronium is eliminated predominantly via the kidney |
| E. | Atracurium is eliminated via plasma pseudocholinesterase |
| Answer» B. Roacuronium is an isoquinolone derivative | |
| 85. |
Regarding local anaesthetics (LA) |
| A. | Lignocaine is metabolised in the liver faster than any of the other amide LA |
| B. | Allergies to amide Las are more common than with the ester Las |
| C. | Prilocaine is the most cardiotoxic LA |
| D. | Cocaine is an amide LA which is often used as a drug of abuse |
| E. | The +1/2 of lignocaine may be increased 3-4 fold in a patient with severe liver disease |
| Answer» F. | |
| 86. |
Half life of amphotericin B is |
| A. | 2 seconds |
| B. | 20 minutes |
| C. | 2 hours |
| D. | 2 weeks |
| E. | 2 months |
| Answer» E. 2 months | |
| 87. |
Which of the following is a second generation cephalosporin? |
| A. | Cefaclor |
| B. | Ceftazidime |
| C. | Cephalexin |
| D. | Cefotaxime |
| E. | Cephalothin |
| Answer» B. Ceftazidime | |
| 88. |
Regarding nondepolarising muscle relaxants |
| A. | Jaw and eye muscles are paralysed before the limb and trunk muscles |
| B. | Rocuronium is the most potent nondepolarising skeletal muscle relaxant |
| C. | Atracurium is a steroid derivative |
| D. | Vecuronium blocks cardiac muscarinic receptors, thus inducing moderate increase in heart rate |
| E. | The nondepolarising agents produce a non-surmountable blockade |
| Answer» B. Rocuronium is the most potent nondepolarising skeletal muscle relaxant | |
| 89. |
The skeletal muscle relaxant with the longest duration of action is |
| A. | Suxamethonium |
| B. | Mivacurium |
| C. | Pancuronium |
| D. | Rocuronium |
| E. | Vecuronium |
| Answer» D. Rocuronium | |
| 90. |
Methyl dopa |
| A. | Lowers the heart rate and cardiac output more than clonidine does |
| B. | Causes reduction in renal vascular resistance |
| C. | Has minimal CNS side effects |
| D. | Has 80% bioavailability |
| E. | Usual therapeutic dose is about 1 2 mg/day |
| Answer» C. Has minimal CNS side effects | |
| 91. |
Which of the following DOES NOT increase the susceptibility of a nerve fibre to conduction blockade by a local anaesthetic |
| A. | Small diameter |
| B. | Myelination |
| C. | Location in the periphery of a nerve |
| D. | High firing rate |
| E. | Short action potential duration |
| Answer» F. | |
| 92. |
Diuretics |
| A. | Work to lower BP initially by decreasing peripheral vascular resistance |
| B. | Thiazide diuretics are potassium sparing |
| C. | Are effective in lowering Bp by 20 25 mmHg in most patients |
| D. | BP response to thiazides continues to increase at doses greater than usual therapeutic dose. |
| E. | Diuretics may impair glucose tolerance |
| Answer» F. | |
| 93. |
Propranolol |
| A. | Is a B1 specific blocker |
| B. | Causes prominent postural hypotension |
| C. | Inhibits the stimulation of renin production by catecholamines |
| D. | Has a half life of 12 hours |
| E. | Has no effect on plasma lipids |
| Answer» D. Has a half life of 12 hours | |
| 94. |
A patient complains of post op muscle pain. This is most likely to be due to |
| A. | Suxamethonium |
| B. | Propofol |
| C. | Isoflurane |
| D. | Atracurium |
| E. | Ketamine |
| Answer» B. Propofol | |
| 95. |
Hydralazine |
| A. | Dilates veins but not arterioles |
| B. | Is contraindicated in the treatment of preeclampsia |
| C. | Can cause an SLE type syndrome in up to 10 20% of patients |
| D. | Causes orthostatic hypotension in many cases |
| E. | Is extremely useful as a single agent in treatment of hypertension |
| Answer» D. Causes orthostatic hypotension in many cases | |
| 96. |
Which of the following drug s metabolism characteristics are bimodally distributed in the population? |
| A. | Sodium nitroprusside |
| B. | Clonidine |
| C. | Minoxidil |
| D. | Hydralazine |
| E. | Phentolamine |
| Answer» E. Phentolamine | |
| 97. |
The following drugs when combined with ACE inhibitors may produce troublesome problems EXCEPT |
| A. | Diclofenac |
| B. | Potassium supplements |
| C. | Spironolactone |
| D. | Lithium |
| E. | Theophylline |
| Answer» F. | |
| 98. |
The nitrates |
| A. | Have an antianginal effect via vasodilation of arterioles only |
| B. | Serve to increase preload |
| C. | Have a direct effect on cardiac muscle to cause a decrease in anginal symptoms |
| D. | All have high oral bioavailability |
| E. | Are contraindicated in the presence of increased intracranial pressure |
| Answer» F. | |
| 99. |
Regarding Calcium channel blockers |
| A. | Calcium channel blockers are not bound to plasma proteins |
| B. | Nifedipine has less vascular potency than verapamil |
| C. | Felodipine has been shown to inhibit insulin release in humans |
| D. | Diltiazem has a plasma half life of 3 4 hours |
| E. | Verapamil has high affinity for cerebral blood vessels thus decreasing vasospasm post subarachnoid haemorrhage |
| Answer» E. Verapamil has high affinity for cerebral blood vessels thus decreasing vasospasm post subarachnoid haemorrhage | |
| 100. |
The ACE inhibitors |
| A. | Inhibit peptidyl dipeptidase thus preventing the inactivation of bradykinin |
| B. | Captopril is a prodrug |
| C. | Are to be used with caution in patients with IHD as reflex sympathetic activation occurs secondary to the hypotensive effects of the ACE inhibitors |
| D. | Have no role in treating the normotensive diabetic patients |
| E. | Are useful antihypertensive agents in late pregnancy |
| Answer» B. Captopril is a prodrug | |