Explore topic-wise MCQs in Biology.

This section includes 135 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Biology knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

Oesophageal varices

A. occur in one third of all cirrhosis patients
B. account for more than 50 % of episodes of haematemesis
C. are most often associated with hepatitis C cirrhosis
D. have a 40 % mortality during the first episode of rupture
E. lie primarily in the middle portion of the oesophagus
Answer» E. lie primarily in the middle portion of the oesophagus
2.

In pyelonephritis

A. 85 % of infections are caused by G-ve bacteria
B. uretral obstruction makes haematogenous infection less likely
C. uretral obstruction allows bacteria to ascend the ureter into the pelvis
D. infection is less likely during pregnancy
E. papillary necrosis and perinephric abscess are common seqelae
Answer» B. uretral obstruction makes haematogenous infection less likely
3.

Urolithiasis

A. presence of hypercalcemia implies renal insufficiency
B. a patient with leukemia is likely to make cystine calculi
C. calcium is the major component of 35% of calculi
D. struvite stones are made up of magnesium-ammonium-phosphate
E. the commonest cause of calcium oxalate stones is hypercalciuria
Answer» E. the commonest cause of calcium oxalate stones is hypercalciuria
4.

Myositis ossificans

A. Morphologically resembles osteosarcoma
B. Resembles the repair process following a muscle tear
Answer» B. Resembles the repair process following a muscle tear
5.

Myelefibrosis

A. causes decreased megakaryocytes
B. stimulates erythropoetin production
C. causes leukoerythroblastic anaemia
Answer» D.
6.

Mononuclear phagocytes

A. Are the predominant cells in three day old wounds
B. Are common in liver, spleen and pancreas
C. Produce fibroblast growth factor
D. Secrete interferon Y
E. Have a half life of one day
Answer» D. Secrete interferon Y
7.

Stress fractures

A. do not incite a paracortical reaction
B. result from repetitive stresses or abnormal axial loading
Answer» F.
8.

Smoking is associated with all the following diseases EXCEPT

A. spontaneous abortion
B. atherosclerosis
C. bladder carcinoma
D. chronic liver disease
Answer» E.
9.

Regarding the changes to myocardium after MI

A. pallor at 24 hours
B. wavy fibres are found centrally
C. decreased contractility after 5 minutes
D. liquefactive necrosis is typical
E. sarcoplasm is resorbed by leukocytes
Answer» B. wavy fibres are found centrally
10.

Smoking is associated with

A. particle deposition in alveolar macrophages
Answer» E.
11.

In pulmonary tuberculosis

A. the Ghon complex is a parenchymal peri-hilar lesion
B. bacilli establish themselves in sites of low oxygen tension
C. liquefactive necrosis precedes granuloma formation
D. Langhans cells occur in coalescent granulomas
E. Primary TB causes more damage to lungs than secondary TB
Answer» E. Primary TB causes more damage to lungs than secondary TB
12.

The commonest site of primary TB lesion in lung is

A. apex
B. base
C. hilum
D. lower zone of upper lobe
E. peripherally
Answer» F.
13.

In atherosclerosis the cells at the centre of the plaque are

A. macrophages
B. foam cells
C. leukocytes
D. smooth muscle cells
Answer» C. leukocytes
14.

In compensated cardiac hypertrophy changes include

A. diffuse fibrosis
B. hyperplasia
C. decreased sarcomeres
D. increased capillary density
E. increased capillary/myocyte ratio
Answer» B. hyperplasia
15.

All of the following are major risk factors for atherosclerosis EXCEPT

A. obesity
B. hyperlipidemia
C. smoking
D. hypertension
E. diabetes
Answer» B. hyperlipidemia
16.

Endocarditis in IV drug abusers typically

A. involves the mitral valve
B. is caused by candida albicans
C. does not cause fever
D. has a better prognosis than other types of endocarditis
E. is caused by staph aureus
Answer» F.
17.

The commonest cause of fungal endocarditis is

A. actinomycosis
B. as
C. as
D. candida
E. blatomycosis
Answer» E. blatomycosis
18.

After occlusion of a coronary artery

A. the ischaemia is most pronounced in the epicardial region
B. loss of contractility only occurs when ultra structural changes in the myocyte are present
C. reperfusion of the ischaemic area can result in new cellular damage, due to the generation of oxygen free radicals
D. Q waves on the ECG are diagnostic of transmural infarction
E. none of the above are true
Answer» D. Q waves on the ECG are diagnostic of transmural infarction
19.

Which of the following tumour is benign

A. chondrosarcoma
B. osteochondroma
C. chondroblastoma
D. Ewing s tumour
E. none of the above
Answer» C. chondroblastoma
20.

All of the following are precancerous except

A. Chronic gastritis of pernicious anaemia
B. Solar keratosis
C. Crohn s disease
D. Leukoplakia
E. Chronic ulcerative colitis
Answer» D. Leukoplakia
21.

Systemic lupus erythematosus

A. has a female : male gender ratio of 2:1
B. is characterised by antinuclear antibodies (ANAs)
C. rarely involves the kidney
D. is associated with a seronegative arthropathy causing marked joint erosion
E. is commonly fulminant with death in weeks to months
Answer» C. rarely involves the kidney
22.

Platelets

A. have a normal concentration range in peripheral blood of 80-100 x 103/mm3
B. are important in haemostasis only
C. remain viable in stored blood for 24 hours only
D. normally are removed from the circulation almost entirely by the spleen
E. have an average lifespan of average 20 days
Answer» D. normally are removed from the circulation almost entirely by the spleen
23.

Infective endocarditis

A. in the acute form, is most commonly caused by streptococci
B. involves abnormal valves in most acute cases
C. is confirmed by positive blood cultures in less than 50% of cases
D. may cause splenic infarction
E. may cause MacCallum s plaques to form on affected valves
Answer» E. may cause MacCallum s plaques to form on affected valves
24.

Cor Pulmonale may be caused by

A. congenital heart disease
B. mitral stenosis
C. left ventricular failure
D. primary pulmonary hypertension
E. aortic regurgitation
Answer» E. aortic regurgitation
25.

In normal haemostasis

A. Factor V inhibits thrombosis
B. Alpha 2 microglobulin is antithrombotic
C. PGI2 favours platelet aggregation
D. Platelet aggregation is inhibited by von Willebrand factor
E. Tissue plasminogen activator is responsible for prothrombotic events
Answer» C. PGI2 favours platelet aggregation
26.

Removal of sutures from a wound at day 7 coincides with a wound strength of

A. 1% of unwounded skin strength
B. 10% of unwounded skin strength
C. 50% of unwounded skin strength
D. 75% of unwounded skin strength
E. 100%, ie. same as unwounded skin
Answer» C. 50% of unwounded skin strength
27.

The immediate lethal dose of radiation exposure for humans in a non-mass casualty situation is

A. 50 rads
B. 150 rads
C. 250 rads
D. 350 rads
E. 450 rads
Answer» F.
28.

Normal endothelial cells decrease platelet aggregation by secreting

A. Interleukin 1
B. von Willebrand factor
C. Prostacyclin
D. Factor V
E. Thromboplastin
Answer» D. Factor V
29.

Metaplasia is seen in all of the following except

A. respiratory epithelium of cigarette smokers
B. vitamin A excess
C. Barrett s oesophagitis
D. epithelium of a pancreatic duct containing stones
E. foci of cell injury
Answer» C. Barrett s oesophagitis
30.

Transplant rejection involves

A. Type IV hypersensitivity only
B. Type IV and III hypersensitivity only
C. Type IV, III and II hypersensitivity only
D. Type IV and II hypersensitivity only
E. Type II and III hypersensitivity only
Answer» D. Type IV and II hypersensitivity only
31.

Interleukin 1 causes

A. Neutropaenia
B. Decreased sleep
C. Decreased prostaglandin synthesis
D. Increased collagen synthesis
E. Decreased leukocyte adherence
Answer» E. Decreased leukocyte adherence
32.

Hyperplasia

A. Occurs after partial hepatectomy
B. Refers to an increase in the size of cells
C. Is always a pathologic process
D. Often occurs in cardiac and skeletal muscle
E. Usually progresses to cancerous proliferation
Answer» B. Refers to an increase in the size of cells
33.

Metaplasia

A. Is irreversible
B. Is commonly a change from squamous to columnar epithelium
C. An example is the transformation of epithelial cells into chondroblasts to produce cartilage
D. Retinoids may play a role
E. Even if the stimuli is persistent, it is a benign lesion
Answer» E. Even if the stimuli is persistent, it is a benign lesion
34.

Metastatic calcification

A. Causes widespread tissue damage
B. Occurs with normal calcium levels
C. Can be caused by systemic sarcoidosis
D. Occurs in hypothyroidism
E. Is caused by drinking large quantities of milk
Answer» D. Occurs in hypothyroidism
35.

With regard to MI

A. gross necrotic changes are present within 3-5 hours
B. irreversible cell injury occurs in less than 10 minutes
C. fibrotic scarring is completed in less than 2 weeks
D. death occurs in 20 % of cases in less than 2 hours
E. is most commonly caused by occlusion of the left circumflex coronary artery
Answer» E. is most commonly caused by occlusion of the left circumflex coronary artery
36.

An infectious complication of transfusion

A. Is most commonly Hepatitis C
B. Is most commonly Hepatitis B
C. Is rarely transmission of HIV since screening was instituted
D. Never includes gonorrhoea or malaria
E. Can be clinically apparent mononucleosis in about 7% of cases
Answer» B. Is most commonly Hepatitis B
37.

Shock results in

A. decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure
Answer» E.
38.

Thrombus formation is inhibited by

A. Von Willebrands factor
B. IL-1
C. Alpha 2 macroglobulin
D. TNF
E. Endothelial cell injury
Answer» D. TNF
39.

Acute appendicitis

A. In preschool children, it usually presents with the so-called classic signs and symptoms
B. It is associated with appendiceal obstruction in 10% of cases
C. Histologically, it shows neutrophilic infiltration of the muscularis layer
D. The clinical diagnosis is falsely positive in about 50% of cases
E. It cannot cause liver abscesses
Answer» D. The clinical diagnosis is falsely positive in about 50% of cases
40.

Pneumocystis carinii

A. Produces pneumocystis pneumonia in normal persons
B. Causes a Ghon s focus in the lung
C. Causes patchy atelectasis
D. Is a fungus
E. Attaches selectively to Type II alveolar cells
Answer» E. Attaches selectively to Type II alveolar cells
41.

Congestive cardiac failure may be caused by

A. vitamin A deficiency
B. niacin deficiency
C. vitamin D deficiency
D. thiamine deficiency
E. vitamin C deficiency
Answer» E. vitamin C deficiency
42.

Acute endocarditis

A. has a less than 20 % mortality
B. is caused by virulent micro-organisms
C. 30 % is caused bacteria
Answer» C. 30 % is caused bacteria
43.

Thromboctopenia

A. occurs commonly in HIV
B. causes spontaneous bleeding at levels of less than 90,000/mm
C. occurs with hyposplenism
D. is related to platelet survival in paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria
E. is not associated with megaloblastic anaemia
Answer» B. causes spontaneous bleeding at levels of less than 90,000/mm
44.

Patient who has a normal blood pressure post MI must have

A. increased cardiac output
B. increased systolic filling pressure
C. increased right atrial pressure
Answer» C. increased right atrial pressure
45.

A young man presents with central chest pain presumed to be associated with vasoconstriction. The most likely cause of the pain is local

A. hypoxia
B. decreased ATP
C. increased CO2
D. catecholamines acting on alpha 1 receptors
E. acetylcholine stimulation
Answer» B. decreased ATP
46.

An adult male with an ejection fraction of 80 % could be due to

A. myocardial ischaemia
B. arrhythmia
C. thiamine deficiency
Answer» D.
47.

Malignant hypertension

A. 75 % recover with no loss of renal function
B. is associated with abnormal renin levels
C. affects 1 to 5 % of sufferers
Answer» F.
48.

The cause of fluid retention peripherally with congestive cardiac failure is

A. increased renin
B. increased GFR
C. increased angiotensin 2
D. increased aldosterone
Answer» E.
49.

Rheumatic carditis is associated with

A. Curschmann spirals
B. Ito cells
C. Aschoff bodies
D. Nutmeg cells
E. Reed-sternberg cells
Answer» D. Nutmeg cells
50.

Bradykinin

A. causes smooth muscle dilatation
B. kallikrein causes prohormone degredation to produce bradykinin
Answer» C.