MCQOPTIONS
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MCQOPTIONS
This section includes 135 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Biology knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.
| 101. |
The commonest cause of thyroid carcinoma is |
| A. | medullary |
| B. | follicular |
| C. | papillary |
| D. | anaplastic |
| E. | squamous |
| Answer» D. anaplastic | |
| 102. |
The features of bronchogenic carcinoma include |
| A. | the classification of oat cell tumour within the large cell type |
| B. | high initial response to chemotherapy for small cell type |
| C. | the strongest correlation with cigarette smoking in the adenocarcinoma type |
| D. | that 50% of small cell type occur in nonsmokers |
| E. | histological features identical in small cell carcinomas and squamous cell types |
| Answer» C. the strongest correlation with cigarette smoking in the adenocarcinoma type | |
| 103. |
Macrocytic anaemia is associated with all the following except |
| A. | Hyperthyroidism |
| B. | Neoplasm |
| C. | Folate and B12 deficiency |
| D. | Pregnancy |
| E. | EBV |
| Answer» F. | |
| 104. |
HIV infection |
| A. | Is caused by rhinovirus |
| B. | Results in increased CD4 and T cell memory |
| C. | Results in inversion at the CD4-CD8 ratio |
| D. | Increases immature precursors of CD4 and T cells |
| E. | Causes a CD4-CD8 ratio close to 2 |
| Answer» D. Increases immature precursors of CD4 and T cells | |
| 105. |
Prothrombogenic factors include all of the following except |
| A. | Platelet activating factor |
| B. | Von Willebrand factor |
| C. | Nitric oxide |
| D. | Tissue factor |
| E. | tPA inhibitor |
| Answer» D. Tissue factor | |
| 106. |
Mediators of septic shock include all of the following except |
| A. | IL6 |
| B. | C5a |
| C. | PAF |
| D. | catecholamines |
| E. | TNF antibodies |
| Answer» F. | |
| 107. |
In cirrhosis |
| A. | fibrosis is confined to the delicate bands around central veins |
| B. | nodularity is uncommon |
| C. | vascular architecture is preserved |
| D. | the Ito cell is a major source of excess collagen |
| E. | the left lobe of the liver is most affected |
| Answer» E. the left lobe of the liver is most affected | |
| 108. |
Cirrhosis is associated with |
| A. | reorganised liver vasculature with scarring |
| Answer» C. | |
| 109. |
With regard to cellular injury, all of the following are reversible except |
| A. | decreased ATP |
| B. | intracellular release of lysosomal enzymes |
| C. | decreased Na pump activity |
| D. | detachment of ribosomes |
| E. | ER swelling |
| Answer» C. decreased Na pump activity | |
| 110. |
Major immune abnormalities associated with HIV infection include all of the following except |
| A. | hypergammaglobulinaemia |
| B. | inversion of CD4-CD8 ratio |
| C. | decreased delayed hypersensitivity reactions |
| D. | decreased monocyte HLA class II expression |
| E. | decreased IL2 and IFN production |
| Answer» B. inversion of CD4-CD8 ratio | |
| 111. |
A typical feature of AIDS |
| A. | Decreased delayed type hypersensitivity reaction |
| B. | Lymphocytosis |
| C. | Hypogammaglobulinaemia |
| D. | Increase CD4 and T cells |
| E. | Increase chemotaxis and phagocytosis |
| Answer» B. Lymphocytosis | |
| 112. |
In compensated heart failure |
| A. | right atrial pressure drops |
| B. | maximum cardiac output is unchanged |
| C. | resting cardiac output is unchanged |
| D. | renin level eventually drops below premorbid level |
| E. | fluid retention plays no role |
| Answer» D. renin level eventually drops below premorbid level | |
| 113. |
Ischaemic tubular necrosis is associated with |
| A. | maintenance stage with polyuria |
| B. | predominantly proximal necrosis |
| C. | intact basement membranes |
| D. | tubular cast obstruction |
| E. | distal necrosis only |
| Answer» E. distal necrosis only | |
| 114. |
Coagulative necrosis |
| A. | results from necrosis in which cellular enzymatic digestion predominates over denaturation |
| B. | is characterised by a marked leukocytic infiltrate |
| C. | is uncommon after myocardial infarction |
| D. | usually occurs after irreversible ischaemic cellular damage |
| E. | is not usually seen in association with caseous necrosis |
| Answer» E. is not usually seen in association with caseous necrosis | |
| 115. |
Thrombosis is potentiated by all of the following except |
| A. | von Willebrand factor deficiency |
| B. | Protein S deficiency |
| C. | Antithrombin III deficiency |
| D. | Thrombotic thrombocytopenia |
| E. | Acute leukaemia |
| Answer» B. Protein S deficiency | |
| 116. |
All of the following organisms cause a clinical effect via the production of an exotoxin except |
| A. | Clostridium tetani |
| B. | Staphylococcus aureus |
| C. | E. coli |
| D. | Pseudomonas aerugenosa |
| E. | Vibrio cholera |
| Answer» E. Vibrio cholera | |
| 117. |
Neutrophilia is generally caused by all of the following except |
| A. | Inflammatory disease |
| B. | Bacterial infection |
| C. | Viral infection |
| D. | Corticosteroids |
| E. | Stress |
| Answer» D. Corticosteroids | |
| 118. |
All of the following are cardiac compensatory responses that occur in heart failure except |
| A. | Cardiac muscle fibre stretching |
| B. | Increased adrenergic receptors on cardiac cells |
| C. | Chamber hypertrophy |
| D. | Decreased heart rate |
| E. | Increased vasopressin levels |
| Answer» E. Increased vasopressin levels | |
| 119. |
Acute pancreatitis |
| A. | may be caused by Helminth infection |
| B. | causes hypercalcaemia |
| C. | develops in 50% of patients with gallstones |
| D. | leads to inhibition of elastase |
| E. | involves acinar cell injury as a late event |
| Answer» B. causes hypercalcaemia | |
| 120. |
All of the following are features of rheumatic fever except |
| A. | carditis |
| B. | subcutaneous nodules |
| C. | erythema nodosum |
| D. | elevated antistreptolysin |
| E. | aschoff bodies in the heart |
| Answer» D. elevated antistreptolysin | |
| 121. |
Hypothyroidism is associated with all of the following EXCEPT |
| A. | cretinism |
| B. | decreased hair growth |
| C. | cold intolerance |
| Answer» E. | |
| 122. |
Select the false statement concerning atherosclerosis |
| A. | Familial hypercholesterolaemia is associated with inadequate hepatic uptake of LDL |
| B. | CMV has been detected in human atheromatous plaques |
| C. | Fibrous atheromatous plaques are capable of regression |
| D. | Foam cells can be considered to be specialised macrophages |
| E. | Atherosclerosis is associated with medial calcific sclerosis |
| Answer» F. | |
| 123. |
Concerning acute tubular necrosis |
| A. | cephalosporins are not a causative agent |
| B. | nephrotoxic causes are associated with a poor prognosis |
| C. | casts are found in the loop of Henle |
| D. | rhabdomyolysis is not a cause |
| E. | ischaemic tubular necrosis is uncommon after haemorrhagic shock |
| Answer» D. rhabdomyolysis is not a cause | |
| 124. |
The major abnormalities of immune function in AIDS are characterised by |
| A. | Inversion of the CD4-CD8 ratio |
| B. | Increase in the number of memory T cells |
| C. | Hypogammaglobulinaemia and decreased circulating immune complexes |
| D. | Decreased secretion of TNF and IL-1 |
| E. | All of the above |
| Answer» B. Increase in the number of memory T cells | |
| 125. |
The acute nephritic syndrome has all of the following features except |
| A. | Proteinuria |
| B. | Haematuria |
| C. | Hypertension |
| D. | Hyaline casts |
| E. | Oliguria |
| Answer» E. Oliguria | |
| 126. |
Select the true statement concerning atherosclerosis |
| A. | Congenital absence of LDL cholesterol leads to premature atherosclerosis |
| B. | Thoracic aorta is more likely to be involved than the abdominal |
| C. | Fatty streaks appear in the aortas of children as young as 1 year |
| D. | Fatty streaks are destined to become atherosclerotic plaques |
| E. | Endothelial disruption always precedes atheroma development |
| Answer» D. Fatty streaks are destined to become atherosclerotic plaques | |
| 127. |
Which of the following is not a para-neoplastic syndrome associated with lung carcinoma |
| A. | ectopic ADH secretion |
| B. | dermatomyositis |
| C. | migratory thrombophlebitis |
| D. | Eaton-Lambert (myasthenic) syndrome |
| E. | thrombocytosis |
| Answer» F. | |
| 128. |
Which of the following is not a feature of acute Crohn s disease |
| A. | segmental lesions |
| B. | serosal involvement |
| C. | fissures penetrating deep into the wall of affected mucosa |
| D. | inflammatory pseudo-polyps |
| E. | epithelioid granulomata |
| Answer» E. epithelioid granulomata | |
| 129. |
Anaplasia is not characterised by |
| A. | pleomorphism |
| B. | Abundant nuclear DNA |
| C. | A nuclear-cytoplasmic ratio of 1:6 |
| D. | Coarsely clumped chromatin |
| E. | Lack of differentiation |
| Answer» D. Coarsely clumped chromatin | |
| 130. |
With regard to the role of complement in the acute inflammatory response, which of the following is incorrect |
| A. | C5a is a powerful, chemotactic agent for neutrophils, monocytes and eosinophils |
| B. | C5a increases leukocyte adhesion to endothelium by activating leukocytes |
| C. | C3a and C5a are called anaphylatoxins because they cause mast cell degranulation |
| D. | C3a activates the lipoxygenase pathway in leukocytes |
| E. | C3 and C5 can be activated in inflammatory exudate by lysosomal enzymes |
| Answer» E. C3 and C5 can be activated in inflammatory exudate by lysosomal enzymes | |
| 131. |
With respect to macrophages, which of the following is not true |
| A. | they can produce TNF and IL4 both of which cause fever |
| B. | they have direct tissue toxicity due to the ability to release hydrogen peroxide |
| C. | they have oxygen dependent microbicidal activity |
| D. | they have cytotoxicity against tumour cells |
| E. | they process antigens and act as antigen presenting cells to activate lymphocytes |
| Answer» B. they have direct tissue toxicity due to the ability to release hydrogen peroxide | |
| 132. |
Which of the following reactions is cell mediated |
| A. | SLE |
| B. | Arthus reaction |
| C. | Anaphylaxis |
| D. | Graft rejection |
| E. | Goodpastures |
| Answer» E. Goodpastures | |
| 133. |
IgE mediated Type I hypersensitivity reactions require the action of which lymphocyte class |
| A. | B only |
| B. | CD8 T cells and B cells |
| C. | T 2 T cells and B cells |
| D. | T 1 T cells and B cells |
| E. | Natural Killer cells and B cells |
| Answer» D. T 1 T cells and B cells | |
| 134. |
Regarding hypersensitivity reactions |
| A. | In anaphylaxis, IgE is bound to mast cells by their Fab portions to release vasoactive amines |
| B. | Goodpasture s syndrome is an example of type III hypersensitivity reaction |
| C. | Farmer s lung is a type III reaction to micropolyspora species |
| D. | Delayed hypersensitivity is mediated by macrophages |
| E. | The Mantoux reaction is a form of contact hypersensitivity |
| Answer» D. Delayed hypersensitivity is mediated by macrophages | |
| 135. |
Regarding pericarditis |
| A. | constrictive pericarditis only rarely follows suppurative pericarditis |
| B. | primary pericarditis is usually bacterial in origin |
| C. | serous pericarditis may be due to ureamia |
| D. | haemorrhagic pericarditis is most commonly due to Klebsiella infection |
| E. | fibrinous pericarditis is due to TB until proven otherwise |
| Answer» D. haemorrhagic pericarditis is most commonly due to Klebsiella infection | |