Explore topic-wise MCQs in Mechanical Engineering.

This section includes 335 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Mechanical Engineering knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

A term used to describe the range of radiation intensities falling on the film during exposure is:

A. Film contrast
B. Radiographic contrast
C. Subject contrast
D. Radiographic sensitivity
Answer» C. Subject contrast
2.

The term used to describe the reaction of human reproductive cells, to ionizing radiation is:

A. Genetic effects
B. Somatic effects
C. Corpuscular effects
D. Hematological effects
Answer» B. Somatic effects
3.

The term used to describe the reaction of human cells, other than reproductive cells, to ionizing radiation is:

A. Genetic effects
B. Somatic effects
C. Corpuscular effects
D. Hematological effects
Answer» C. Corpuscular effects
4.

The amount of radioactivity which corresponds to 3.7 1010 disintegrations per second is called:

A. 0.01 gray (1 rad)
B. 1 Farad
C. 37 GBq (1 curie)
D. 10 mSv (1 roentgen)
Answer» D. 10 mSv (1 roentgen)
5.

A method of compensating for the dead zone or near surface resolution problems is to:

A. Inspect all areas of the test piece twice to assure repeatability of indications
B. Re-inspect from the opposite side of the test piece if geometry permits
C. Re-inspect using a higher energy pulse
D. Re-inspect using a higher frequency transducer that does not have a dead
Answer» C. Re-inspect using a higher energy pulse
6.

When a small diameter tube is placed in a glass of water, water rises in the tube to a level above the adjacent surface. This is called:

A. Viscosity
B. Capillary action
C. Surface tension
D. Barometric testing
Answer» C. Surface tension
7.

A penetrant process in which excess penetrant is removed with an organic solvent is called:

A. Solvent removable
B. Water washable
C. Post-emulsified
D. Dual method
Answer» B. Water washable
8.

A penetrant process which employs an emulsifier as a separate step in the penetrant removal process is called:

A. Solvent removable
B. Water washable
C. Post-emulsified
D. Dual sensitivity method
Answer» D. Dual sensitivity method
9.

Which of the following statements accurately describes the capabilities of liquid penetrant testing?

A. Liquid penetrant testing is useful for locating subsurface discontinuities in a test piece
B. Liquid penetrant testing is useful for locating discontinuities in porous materials
C. Liquid penetrant testing is useful for locating discontinuities which are open to the surface in non-porous materials
D. none of the above
Answer» D. none of the above
10.

How is the size of a liquid penetrant indication usually related to the discontinuity it represents:

A. Larger than
B. Smaller than
C. Equal to
D. Not related to
Answer» B. Smaller than
11.

Which of the following discontinuity types could typically be found with a liquid penetrant test?

A. Internal slag in a weld
B. Internal slag in a casting
C. Sensitization in austenitic stainless steel
D. Fatigue cracks
Answer» E.
12.

Which of the following chemical elements are normally held to a minimum in liquid penetrant materials, when testing stainless steel and titanium?

A. Hydrogen
B. Chlorine
C. Carbon
D. Oil
Answer» C. Carbon
13.

Which of the following chemical elements are normally held to a minimum in liquid penetrant materials when testing nickel based alloys?

A. Sulphur
B. Oxygen
C. Carbon
D. Nitrogen
Answer» B. Oxygen
14.

Which of the following is the most desirable method of pre-cleaning a test piece prior to penetrant testing?

A. Sand blasting
B. Vapour degreasing
C. Emery cloth
D. Wire brushing
Answer» C. Emery cloth
15.

For adequate test results, the black light used in fluorescent penetrant examination should provide what minimum black light intensity at the test surface?

A. 100 foot candles per square centimetre
B. 1000 microwatts per square centimetre
C. 800 foot candles
D. 35 microwatts per square centimetre
Answer» C. 800 foot candles
16.

What minimum warm-up time is required for acceptable performance of a mercury Vapour arc black light?

A. None
B. 2 minutes
C. 5 minutes
D. 10 minutes
Answer» D. 10 minutes
17.

Which of the following penetrants must be treated with an emulsifier prior to water removal?

A. Solvent removable
B. Water washable
C. Post emulsifiable
D. Fluorescent
Answer» D. Fluorescent
18.

A penetrant testing method in which an emulsifier, separate from the penetrant, is used is called:

A. Solvent removable
B. Water washable
C. Post emulsifying
D. Self emulsifying
Answer» D. Self emulsifying
19.

When using a hydrophilic emulsifier, the amount of penetrant removed is most affected by:

A. Solution strength and time of spray
B. Penetrant dwell time
C. Emulsifier dwell time
D. Adequacy of pre-clean
Answer» B. Penetrant dwell time
20.

Which of the following is used in connection with hydrophilic emulsifier applied by immersion?

A. Brushing
B. Agitation
C. Drain-dwell
D. All of the above
Answer» C. Drain-dwell
21.

What maximum water rinse pressure is considered safe for removal of excess penetrant in the water washable penetrant process?

A. As low a pressure as possible, 50 PSI maximum
B. to 200 PSI
C. PSI maximum
D. to 500 PSI
Answer» B. to 200 PSI
22.

During the water rinse step of the water washable penetrant process, what is the desired angle of the spray to the surface?

A. Normal
B. 30 degrees
C. 45 degrees
D. 75 degrees
Answer» D. 75 degrees
23.

The temperature of water rinse used in the water washable penetrant process should be:

A. 60 to 110oC
B. 40 to 100oC
C. 16 to 43oC
D. 70 to 140oC
Answer» D. 70 to 140oC
24.

When using a water washable penetrant testing process, why should the water rinse temperature remain constant?

A. To avoid changes in rinse efficiency
B. To maintain the temperature of the part
C. To avoid over washing
D. To avoid under washing
Answer» D. To avoid under washing
25.

What additional surface preparation or cleaning must be performed on a machined or ground aluminium casting prior to penetrant testing?

A. Vapour degreasing
B. Etching
C. Detergent wash
D. Nothing
Answer» C. Detergent wash
26.

The advantages of using a visible solvent removable penetrant versus a post emulsified fluorescent penetrant is:

A. No UV light is needed
B. The technique is well suitable for site tests or spot checks
C. No water or emulsifiers are needed
D. No extra equipment is needed
Answer» E.
27.

Liquid penetrants can be further categorised by the removal method of excess surface penetrant:

A. Water washable
B. Solvent removable
C. Post emulsified
D. All of the above
Answer» E.
28.

A magnetic particle testing technique in which the test piece is magnetised and magnetic particles applied after the magnetising force has been removed is called the:

A. Magnetic method
B. Continuous method
C. Residual method
D. Discontinuous method
Answer» D. Discontinuous method
29.

The magnetism which remains in a piece of magnetisable material after the magnetising force has been removed is called the:

A. Tramp field
B. Residual field
C. Damped field
D. Permanent field
Answer» C. Damped field
30.

The ability of a material to remain magnetic after the magnetising force is removed is called:

A. Reluctance
B. Retentivity
C. Permeability
D. Electromagnetism
Answer» C. Permeability
31.

For direct contact magnetising methods, the magnetic field is oriented in what direction relative to the current direction?

A. Parallel
B. At 45 degrees
C. At 90 degrees
D. At 180 degrees
Answer» D. At 180 degrees
32.

For direct contact magnetising methods, the magnetic field is oriented in what direction relative to the current direction?

A. Parallel
B. At 45o
C. At 90o
D. At 180o
Answer» D. At 180o
33.

Over washing during excess penetrant removal is less likely with which penetrant testing process?

A. Solvent removable
B. Water washable
C. Post emulsifiable
D. Self emuslifying
Answer» C. Post emulsifiable
34.

Contrast is defined as the comparison between on different areas of the radiograph:

A. Density
B. Sensitivity
C. Sharpness
D. Latitude
Answer» B. Sensitivity
35.

It is easier to control developer coating thickness with a soluble developer than a water suspendable one because:

A. Less developer can be dissolved that suspended in water
B. It dries more rapidly on the test piece
C. Evaporation deposits a thin, even coating on the test piece
D. All of the above
Answer» E.
36.

Fluorescent penetrant indications are more visible than colour contrast penetrant indications because:

A. They reflect more light
B. They emit rather than reflect light
C. They contain a higher concentration of dye particles
D. Yellow and green contrast more than red and white
Answer» C. They contain a higher concentration of dye particles
37.

According to ASTM E709-95 the viscosity limit (measured in centi Stokes) of the wet medium (conditioned water) should not exceed:

A. 1 cSt
B. 3 cSt
C. 6 cSt
D. 4 cSt
Answer» D. 4 cSt
38.

Which of the following conditions would be most likely to cause strong, interfering surface waves?

A. High frequency transducers
B. Testing on a small diameter surface
C. Testing on a flat surface
D. Testing on a curved surface with a contoured wedge and transducer
Answer» E.
39.

Reflection indications from a weld area being inspection by the angle beam technique may represent:

A. Porosity
B. Cracks
C. Weld bead
D. All of the above
Answer» E.
40.

Contrast and definition are the two major factors that determine the of the radiograph:

A. Density
B. Sensitivity
C. Graininess
D. Intensity
Answer» C. Graininess
41.

Definition is defined as the measure of the of the outline of the image in the radiograph.

A. Density
B. Sensitivity
C. Sharpness
D. Latitude
Answer» D. Latitude
42.

According to ASME Section VIII, a linear indication is defined as an indication in which the length is equal to or greater than the width by a factor of:

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer» D. 4
43.

A dark, irregular indication which is located adjacent to the toe of the weld would probably be:

A. Undercut
B. Incomplete penetration
C. Porosity
D. Tungsten inclusions
Answer» B. Incomplete penetration
44.

A radiographic indication in a weld, characterised by two parallel dark lines in the film image, would probably be caused by:

A. Incomplete penetration
B. Lack of fusion
C. Slag inclusions
D. Tungsten inclusions
Answer» C. Slag inclusions
45.

A casting flaw which is formed when two masses of molten metal flowing from different directions flow together, but fail to fuse, is called:

A. A hot tear
B. Shrinkage
C. A cold crack
D. A cold shut
Answer» E.
46.

A straight, dark line in the centre of a weld bead image on film would be suspected of being:

A. Lack of fusion
B. A crack
C. Incomplete penetration
D. Root concavity
Answer» D. Root concavity
47.

When a casting is being non destructively examined for critical service, and the possibility of cracks exists, which of the following techniques would be best?

A. X ray radiography at 200 kV or less
B. Magnetic Particle or Liquid Penetrant testing
C. Radiography (X or gamma ray, depending on the thickness)
D. Radiography and either Magnetic Particle or liquid Penetrant testing
Answer» C. Radiography (X or gamma ray, depending on the thickness)
48.

According to ASTM E709-95 and API, a linear indication is defined as an indication in which the length is equal to or greater than the width by a factor of:

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer» D. 4
49.

A dark crescent shaped mark in the centre of a weld bead radiographic image would probably be:

A. A film artifact
B. Porosity
C. A tungsten inclusion
D. Root concavity
Answer» B. Porosity
50.

Use of a slower speed film improves the definition of the radiograph because the slower film:

A. Requires more exposure
B. Is more sensitive to X rays
C. Requires less voltage
D. Has finer grains
Answer» E.