Explore topic-wise MCQs in Graduate Aptitude Test (GATE).

This section includes 92 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Graduate Aptitude Test (GATE) knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

Which of the following is employed for the repeated use of enzymes in bioprocesses?

A. polymerization
B. immobilization
C. ligation
D. isomerization
Answer» C. ligation
2.

The most plausible explanation for a sudden increase of the respiratory quotient (RQ) of a microbial culture is that

A. cells are dying
B. yield of biomass is increasing
C. the fermentation rate is increasing relative to respiration rate
D. the maintenance rate is decreasing
Answer» D. the maintenance rate is decreasing
3.

In a batch culture of Penicillium chrysogenum, the maximum penicillin synthesis occurs during the

A. lag phase
B. exponential phase
C. stationary phase
D. death phase
Answer» D. death phase
4.

The population of a new city is 5 million and is growing at 20% annually. How many years would it take to double at this growth rate?

A. 3-4 years
B. 4-5 years
C. 5-6 years
D. 6-7 years
Answer» B. 4-5 years
5.

Which of the following options is the closest in meaning to the sentence below? “As a woman, I have no country.”

A. Women have no country.
B. Women are not citizens of any country.
C. Women’s solidarity knows no national boundaries
D. Women of all countries have equal legal rights
Answer» D. Women of all countries have equal legal rights
6.

Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following sentence. ____________ is the key to their happiness; they are satisfied with what they have

A. Contentment
B. Ambition
C. Perseverance
D. Hunger
Answer» B. Ambition
7.

An automobile plant contracted to buy shock absorbers from two suppliers X and Y. X supplies 60% and Y supplies 40% of the shock absorbers. All shock absorbers are subjected to a quality test. The ones that pass the quality test are considered reliable. Of X’s shock absorbers, 96% are reliable. Of Y’s shock absorbers, 72% are reliable. The probability that a randomly chosen shock absorber, which is found to be reliable, is made by Y is

A. 0.288
B. 0.334
C. 0.667
D. 0.720
Answer» C. 0.667
8.

Choose the most appropriate alternative from the options given below to complete the following sentence: Despite several ––––––––– the mission succeeded in its attempt to resolve the conflict.

A. attempts
B. setbacks
C. meetings
D. delegations
Answer» C. meetings
9.

Which one of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word given below? Mitigate

A. Diminish
B. Divulge
C. Dedicate
D. Denote
Answer» B. Divulge
10.

Consider the data set 14, 18, 14, 14, 10, 29, 33, 31, 25. If you add 20 to each of the values, then

A. both mean and variance change
B. both mean and variance are unchanged
C. the mean is unchanged, variance changes
D. the mean changes, the variance is unchanged
Answer» E.
11.

In zinc finger proteins, the amino acid residues that coordinate zinc are

A. Cys and His
B. Asp and Glu
C. Arg and Lys
D. Asp and Arg
Answer» B. Asp and Glu
12.

The helix content of a protein can be determined using

A. an infrared spectrometer
B. a fluorescence spectrometer
C. a circular dichroism spectrometer
D. a UV-Visible spectrophotometer
Answer» D. a UV-Visible spectrophotometer
13.

The molarity of water in a water : ethanol mixture (15 : 85, v/v) is approximately

A. 0.85
B. 5.55
C. 8.5
D. 55.5
Answer» D. 55.5
14.

In transmission electron microscopy, electron opacity is greatly enhanced by treating the specimen with

A. ferrous ammonium sulfate
B. uranium acetate
C. sodium chloride
D. basic fuchsin
Answer» C. sodium chloride
15.

While searching a database for similar sequences, E value does NOT depend on the

A. sequence length
B. number of sequences in the database
C. scoring system
D. probability from a normal distribution
Answer» E.
16.

Synteny refers to

A. gene duplication from a common ancestor
B. a tree representation of related sequences
C. the extent of similarity between two sequences
D. local conservation of gene order
Answer» E.
17.

An example of a program for constructing a phylogenetic tree is

A. phylip
B. phrap
C. prodom
D. PHDsec
Answer» B. phrap
18.

An example of a derived protein structure database is

A. Pfam
B. SCOP
C. GEO
D. Prosite
Answer» C. GEO
19.

Identify the statement that is NOT applicable to an enzyme catalyzed reaction

A. Enzyme catalysis involves propinquity effects
B. The binding of substrate to the active site causes a strain in the substrate
C. Enzymes do not accelerate the rate of reverse reaction
D. Enzyme catalysis involves acid-base chemistry
Answer» D. Enzyme catalysis involves acid-base chemistry
20.

During photorespiration under low CO2 and high O2 levels, O2 reacts with ribulose 1,5- bisphosphate to yield

A. one molecule each of 3-phosphoglycerate and 2-phosphoglycolate
B. two molecules of 3-phosphoglycerate
C. two molecules of 2-phosphoglycolate
D. one molecule each of 3-phosphoglycerate and glyoxylate
Answer» B. two molecules of 3-phosphoglycerate
21.

The direction of shell coiling in the snail Limnaea peregra is a classic example of

A. chromosomal inheritance
B. extra-chromosomal inheritance
C. chromosomal translocation
D. homologous recombination
Answer» C. chromosomal translocation
22.

Protein-DNA interactions in vivo can be studied by

A. gel shift assay
B. Southern hybridization
C. chromatin immunoprecipitation assay
D. fluorescence in situ hybridization assay
Answer» D. fluorescence in situ hybridization assay
23.

A truncated polypeptide is synthesized due to a nonsense mutation. Where would you introduce another mutation to obtain a full-length polypeptide?

A. Ribosomal protein gene
B. Transfer RNA gene
C. DNA repair gene
D. Ribosomal RNA gene
Answer» C. DNA repair gene
24.

A protein is phosphorylated at a serine residue. A phosphomimic mutant of the protein can be generated by substituting that serine with

A. glycine
B. alanine
C. aspartate
D. threonine
Answer» D. threonine
25.

Heat inactivation of serum is done to inactivate

A. prions
B. mycoplasma
C. complement
D. pathogenic bacteria
Answer» D. pathogenic bacteria
26.

Nude mice refers to

A. mice without skin
B. mice without thymus
C. knockout mice
D. transgenic mice
Answer» C. knockout mice
27.

Dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO) is used as a cryopreservant for mammalian cell cultures because

A. it is an organic solvent
B. it easily penetrates cells
C. it protects cells by preventing crystallization of water
D. it is also utilized as a nutrient
Answer» D. it is also utilized as a nutrient
28.

A humanized antibody is one in which the

A. heavy and light chains are from human
B. heavy chain is from human and light chain is from mouse
C. light chain is from human and heavy chain is from mouse
D. CDRs are from mouse, and the rest is from human
Answer» E.
29.

B-lymphocytes originate from the bone marrow whereas T-lymphocytes originate from

A. thymus
B. bone marrow
C. spleen
D. liver
Answer» C. spleen
30.

Identification of blood groups involves

A. precipitation
B. neutralization
C. opsonization
D. agglutination
Answer» E.
31.

Idiotypic determinants of an antibody are associated with the

A. constant region of the heavy chains
B. constant region of the light chains
C. variable region
D. constant regions of light and heavy chains
Answer» D. constant regions of light and heavy chains
32.

The basis for blue-white screening with pUC vectors is

A. intraallelic complementation
B. intergenic complementation
C. intragenic suppression
D. extragenic suppression
Answer» B. intergenic complementation
33.

In mismatch correction repair, the parental DNA strand is distinguished from the daughter strand by

A. acetylation
B. phosphorylation
C. methylation
D. glycosylation
Answer» D. glycosylation
34.

Which one of the following statements is true with regard to processing and presentation of protein antigens?

A. In the class II MHC pathway, protein antigens in the cytosol are processed by proteasomes
B. In the class I MHC pathway, extracellular protein antigens are endocytosed into vesicles and processed
C. In the class I MHC pathway, transporter associated antigen processing (TAP) protein is required for translocating processed peptides generated in the cytosol
D. Invariant chain in endoplasmic reticulum is involved in transport of peptides and loading of class I MHC
Answer» D. Invariant chain in endoplasmic reticulum is involved in transport of peptides and loading of class I MHC
35.

Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r] Assertion: The association constant in water for the G-C base pair is three times lower than that for the A-T base pair. Reason: There are three hydrogen bonds in the G-C base pair and two in the A-T base pair.

A. Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]
B. [a] is false but [r] is true
C. Both [a] and [r] are false
D. Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is not the correct reason for [a]
Answer» C. Both [a] and [r] are false
36.

Which one of the following amino acids is catalyzed by activated macrophages to produce reactive nitrogen species?

A. Arginine
B. Asparagine
C. Cysteine
D. Histidine
Answer» B. Asparagine
37.

Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r] Assertion: Ab initio gene finding algorithms that predict protein coding genes in eukaryotic genomes are not completely accurate. Reason: Eukaryotic splice sites are difficult to predict.

A. Both [a] and [r] are false
B. [a] is true but [r] is false
C. Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]
D. Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]
Answer» D. Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]
38.

In leguminous plants, both the rhizobium genes and the plant genes influence nodulation and nitrogen fixation. Which one of the following functions is NOT encoded by the host plant genes?

A. Production of inducers that modify rhizobial cell wall
B. Production of flavonoid inducers
C. Establishment of contact between bacteria and legume
D. Root hair curling
Answer» E.
39.

Which one of the following plant secondary metabolites is a natural insecticide?

A. Digitoxin
B. Pyrethrin
C. Salicylic acid
D. Avenacin A-1
Answer» C. Salicylic acid
40.

Which one of the following techniques is used to monitor RNA transcripts, both temporally and spatially?

A. Northern blotting
B. In situ hybridization
C. Southern blotting
D. (D)Western blotting
Answer» C. Southern blotting
41.

Standard error is

A. the probability of a type I error in a statistical test
B. the error in estimating a sample standard deviation
C. the standard deviation of a variable that follows standard normal distribution
D. the standard deviation of distribution of sample means
Answer» E.
42.

Which one of the following statements is true for actin?

A. Actin filament is structurally polarized and the two ends are not identical
B. De novo actin polymerization is a single-step process
C. The pointed end of the actin filaments is the fast growing end
D. Actin forms spindle fibers during mitosis
Answer» B. De novo actin polymerization is a single-step process
43.

Cell type A secretes molecule X into the culture medium. Cell type B in the same culture responds to the molecule X by expressing protein Y. Which one of the following modes of signaling represents the interaction between A and B?

A. Autocrine
B. Juxtacrine
C. Paracrine
D. Intracrine
Answer» D. Intracrine
44.

Which one of the following bioreactor configurations is the basis for a trickling biological filter?

A. Stirred tank
B. Packed bed
C. Air lift
D. Fluidized bed
Answer» C. Air lift
45.

Which one of the following is NOT a principal component of innate immunity?

A. Mucosal epithelia
B. Dendritic cells
C. Complement system
D. Memory B-cells
Answer» E.
46.

Which one of the following metabolic processes in mammalian cells does NOT occur in the mitochondria?

A. Citric acid cycle
B. Oxidative phosphorylation
C. Fatty acid β-oxidation
D. Glycolysis
Answer» E.
47.

Which one of the following is INCORRECT about protein structures?

A. A protein fold is stabilized by favorable non-covalent interactions
B. javascript:;All parts of a fold can be classified as helices, strands or turns
C. Two non-covalent atoms cannot be closer than the sum of their van der Waals radii
D. The peptide bond is nearly planar
Answer» C. Two non-covalent atoms cannot be closer than the sum of their van der Waals radii
48.

A mixture contains three similarly sized peptides P, Q and R. The peptide P is positively charged, Q is weakly negative and R is strongly negative. If this mixture is passed through an ion-exchange chromatography column containing an anionic resin, their order of elution will be

A. P, Q, R
B. R, Q, P
C. Q, R, P
D. P, Q and R elute together
Answer» C. Q, R, P
49.

Which one of the following BLAST search programs is used to identify homologs of a genomic DNA query in a protein sequence database?

A. blastp
B. blastn
C. blastx
D. tblastn
Answer» D. tblastn
50.

Which one of the following is an example of a neurotoxin?

A. Cholera toxin
B. Streptolysin-O
C. Botulinum toxin
D. Diphtheria toxin
Answer» D. Diphtheria toxin