Explore topic-wise MCQs in UPSC IAS Exam.

This section includes 2618 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your UPSC IAS Exam knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1051.

Which among the following is a regional political party of West Bengal?

A.  Janata Dal (Secular)           
B.  Trinamool Congress
C.  Samajwadi Party              
D.  Jana Shakti Party
Answer» C.  Samajwadi Party              
1052.

Consider the following and choose the correct code: 1. Elections are at the heart of parliamentary democracy. 2. Democracy without the fair, free and regular elections is practically impossible.

A.  1 is correct, 2 is false,            
B.  2 is correct, 1 is false.
C.  1 and 2 both are true.         
D.  1 and 2 both are false.
Answer» D.  1 and 2 both are false.
1053.

Which, among the following, is a Delhi-based state party?

A.  Janata Dal (United)
B.  Aam Aadami Party
C.  All-India Forward Bloc
D.  Congress Nationalist Party
Answer» C.  All-India Forward Bloc
1054.

Which one of the following is a regional communal political party?

A.  Republican Party of India      
B.  National Conference
C.  Asom Gana Parishad          
D.  Bangia Congress
Answer» B.  National Conference
1055.

Which one of the following is a personalized state party?

A.  Jharkhand Mukti Morcha      
B.  Vishal Haryana Parishad
C.  Nationalist Congress Party     
D.  Lok Shakti Party
Answer» E.
1056.

Which one of the following is not a national political party?

A.  Bharatiya Janata Party
B.  Bharatiya Jana Sangh
C.  Indian National Congress
D.  Communist Party of India (Marxist)
Answer» C.  Indian National Congress
1057.

Which one of these regional political parties is ethincally and culturally based?

A.  Haryana Vikas Party     
B.  Forward Bloc
C.  Telugu Desam  
D.  Bangia Congress
Answer» D.  Bangia Congress
1058.

What is the nature of alliance parties in India? Choose the correct code. 1. Alliance parties are purely temporary. 2. Alliance parties are always permanent. 3. They are both temporary and permanent. 4. They are neither temporary nor permanent.

A.  1, 2                             
B.  2, 3
C.  Only 3             
D.  Only 4
Answer» D.  Only 4
1059.

Consider the following and choose the correct code: 1. India has a multiplicity of political parties. 2. The independents contesting the elections are on the decrease since 1952.

A.  Only 1 is true.                 
B.  Only 2 is true.
C.  1 and 2 both are true.          
D.  1 and 2 both are false.
Answer» D.  1 and 2 both are false.
1060.

Who can declare emergency under any Article: 352, 356, 360?

A.  The Prime Minister of India
B.  The Defence Minister of India
C.  The Finance Minister of India
D.  The President of India
Answer» E.
1061.

How would one describe the nature of India's party system?

A.  It is not a single-party system.
B.  It is not a multiple-party system.
C.  It is not a two-party system.
D.  It is a single dominant party system with cooperation from regional parties.
Answer» E.
1062.

Name the classical languages of India. Choose from the codes given. 1. Tamil                          2. Sanskrit 3. Telugu                         4. Odia 5. Urdu                       6. Hindi

A.  1, 2, 3, 4                     
B.  2, 3, 4, 5
C.  3, 4, 5, 6                     
D.  1, 2, 5, 6
Answer» B.  2, 3, 4, 5
1063.

Consider the following and choose the correct code: 1. The official language of the Union is Hindi. 2. The English language will continue in the Union Government till the President's order to the contrary.

A.  Only 1 is true.                 
B.  Only 2 is true.
C.  1 and 2 both are true.          
D.  1 and 2 both are false.
Answer» D.  1 and 2 both are false.
1064.

Which of the following states is the third largest contributor with around eight thousand soldiers in the peace-keeping forces?

A.  Pakistan                      
B.  Bangladesh
C.  USA                            
D.  India
Answer» E.
1065.

For the present Modi government, India's foreign policy is dictated by numerous principles. Which one of the following is not such a principle?

A.  'Make in India" campaign
B.  Strategic relationship with super powers
C.  Opposition to foreign investment in India
D.  Strong economic India
Answer» D.  Strong economic India
1066.

Which one of the following is not a feature of the Gujjar doctrine?

A.  No South Asian nation should allow any other country to use its region
B.  India should expect reciprocity from her neighbours
C.  Non-interference and non-aggression
D.  People-to-people relationship
Answer» C.  Non-interference and non-aggression
1067.

Which of the following are the objectives of India's foreign policy: Choose the correct code. 1. Realization of SAARC objectives 2. Elimination of world terrorism

A.  Only 1             
B.  Only 2
C.  1 and 2 both                
D.  neither 1 nor 2
Answer» D.  neither 1 nor 2
1068.

Which of the following are not the features of India's foreign policy? Choose from the codes given. 1. Promotion of world peace 2. Anti-colonialism and anti-racialism 3. Cooperation with the Western bloc 4. Afro-Asian unity

A.  1, 2, 3             
B.  1, 2, 4
C.  1, 3, 4             
D.  2, 3, 4
Answer» C.  1, 3, 4             
1069.

Which one of the following is not true with regard to the guiding principles of the public services?

A.  To maintains fairness and impartiality
B.  To demonstrate courtesy in public behaviour
C.  Not to misuse their position
D.  To refrain from doing anything which is contrary to the law
Answer» D.  To refrain from doing anything which is contrary to the law
1070.

Consider the following about financial emergency and choose the correct code: 1. It is caused because of financial instability (Article 360). 2. It can be used in a part of the country.

A.  1 is correct, 2 is false,             
B.  2 is correct, 1 is false.
C.  1 and 2 both are true.          
D.  1 and 2 both are false.
Answer» B.  2 is correct, 1 is false.
1071.

Which one of the following is true with regard to the role of public services in India?

A.  Making policy decisions
B.  Executing laws
C.  Formulating socio-economic policies
D.  Supervising the courts
Answer» C.  Formulating socio-economic policies
1072.

Which one of the following is untrue with regard to safeguards of the civil servants?

A.  A civil servant can be removed by any authority of the government.
B.  The removed civil servant does not disqualify for future employment under the government.
C.  A civil servant cannot be reduced in rank except through an inquiry.
D.  None of the above
Answer» B.  The removed civil servant does not disqualify for future employment under the government.
1073.

At whose behest can an all-India service be established by the Parliament?

A.  Lok Sabha                   
B.  Rajya Sabha
C.  President of India          
D.  Parliament itself
Answer» C.  President of India          
1074.

Who is empowered to regulate the recruitment and the conditions of services of public services?

A.  Parliament   
B.  President of India
C.  Union Council of Ministers    
D.  LokSabhaonly
Answer» B.  President of India
1075.

The three sections which the Consolidated Fund is divided into does not include the following:

A.  Small Saving Provident Fund section
B.  Revenue section
C.  Capital section
D.  Public Debt and Loans section
Answer» B.  Revenue section
1076.

Which one of the following is true with regard to the Contingency Fund of India?

A.  All repayment of internal and external debits and release of loans to States are debited against this fund.
B.  The money of this fund is to be used for providing immediate relief to the victims of natural calamities.
C.  All the money received other than that which is for credit to the Consolidated Fund is accounted in this fund.
D.  It includes various suspense and remittance heads.
Answer» C.  All the money received other than that which is for credit to the Consolidated Fund is accounted in this fund.
1077.

Which one of the following is not true with regard to the Contingency Fund of India?

A.  It is established by the Parliament through law.
B.  All loans raised are deposited in this fund.
C.  It is kept at the disposal of the President of India.
D.  It helps the Government to meet the unforeseen expenditure pending its authorization by the Parliament.
Answer» C.  It is kept at the disposal of the President of India.
1078.

Consider the following and choose the correct code: 1. All expenditures incurred by the Government for conduct of its business are debited in the Consolidated Fund of India. 2. The Parliament has established this fund by law

A.  1 is correct, 2 is false,            
B.  2 is correct, 1 is false.
C.  1 and 2 both are true.           
D.  1 and 2 both are false.
Answer» D.  1 and 2 both are false.
1079.

Name the funds where revenues are credited. Choose the correct code. 1. Contingency Fund of India 2. Public Account of India 3. Consolidated Fund of India

A.  Only 1             
B.  Only 2
C.  Only 3 
D.  1, 2
Answer» D.  1, 2
1080.

Which of the following two states are members of the Eastern Zonal Council?

A.  Jammu and Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh
B.  Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh
C.  Bihar and Odisha
D.  Kerala and Karnataka
Answer» D.  Kerala and Karnataka
1081.

Which one of the following is false about state emergency?

A.  It is also known as the constitutional emergency under Article 356
B.  It can be imposed in a part of the state.
C.  It is caused due to the failure of the constitutional machinery.
D.  It is referred to as the President's (Governor's) Rule.
Answer» C.  It is caused due to the failure of the constitutional machinery.
1082.

Which one of the following is a member of the Western Zonal Council?

A.  Jharkhand        
B.  Uttrakhand
C.  Gujarat            
D.  Kerala
Answer» B.  Uttrakhand
1083.

Which two states were involved in Narmada Water Disputes Tribunal 1969? Choose from the codes given. 1. Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh 2. Rajasthan and Gujarat 3. Odisha and Goa

A.  Only1              
B.  Only 2
C.  1, 3                             
D.  1, 2, 3
Answer» C.  1, 3                             
1084.

Which one of the following was a state involved in Godavari Water Disputes Tribunal (1969)?

A.  Maharashtra     
B.  Rajasthan
C.  Puducherry                  
D.  Gujarat
Answer» B.  Rajasthan
1085.

Which two states were involved in Ravi-Beas Water Disputes Tribunal (1986)

A.  Karnataka and Maharashtra
B.  Kerala and Tamil Nadu
C.  Punjab and Haryana
D.  Odisha and Maharashtra
Answer» D.  Odisha and Maharashtra
1086.

Which one of the following state was not involved in Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal (1990)?

A.  Andhra Pradesh
B.  Karnataka
C.  Kerala             
D.  Tamil Nadu
Answer» B.  Karnataka
1087.

Which one of the following is true of financial emergency? Choose the correct code: 1. Such an emergency has to be approved within two months. 2. There is no maximum period prescribed for such an emergency. 3. Repeated Parliamentary approval is not required for its continuation. 4. India has witnessed such an emergency only once.

A.  1, 2, 3             
B.  1, 3, 4
C.  1, 2, 4             
D.  2, 3, 4
Answer» E.
1088.

On what grounds can financial emergency in India be proclaimed?

A.  On threats to financial stability
B.  On the discretionary powers of the President
C.  On the Cabinet's financial survey
D.  None of the above
Answer» B.  On the discretionary powers of the President
1089.

Which one of the following is false about the national emergency?

A.  National emergency is proclaimed under Article 352.
B.  It may be promulgated in a part of the country.
C.  It may be caused due to internal disturbance.
D.  It may be caused due to war, external aggression and armed rebellion.
Answer» D.  It may be caused due to war, external aggression and armed rebellion.
1090.

Who declares financial emergency in India?

A.  Prime Minister  
B.  Finance Minister
C.  President                      
D.  Union Cabinet
Answer» B.  Finance Minister
1091.

Following the Parliament's approval every six months, what is the maximum limit of a state emergency?

A.  2 years                        
B.  3 years
C.  4 years                      
D.  5 years
Answer» C.  4 years                      
1092.

If the Lok Sabha is dissolved before or during the two months' period of the proclamation of emergency under Article 356, who has to approve the proclamation?

A.  The President himself
B.  The Union Council of Ministers
C.  The Council of States
D.  Majority of the States Assemblies
Answer» D.  Majority of the States Assemblies
1093.

Within how much period has the proclamation of emergency under Article 356 to be approved by the Parliament?

A.  14 days                       
B.  30 days
C.  Two months                 
D.  Six months
Answer» D.  Six months
1094.

State emergency can be proclaimed in a state when

A.  The President holds the view that the state(s) has/have failed to comply with the directions of the Union and that it is lawful to take over the administration of the state owing to the failure to the Constitutional machinery
B.  The President uses his discretionary powers.
C.  The Union Council of Ministers advises the President in a written communication.
D.  A part of India is in the grip of armed rebellion
Answer» B.  The President uses his discretionary powers.
1095.

Consider the following and choose the correct code: 1. It is the duty of the Union to protect the states and see that administration is carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution (Article 355). 2. It is in this context that the Union Government's directives have to be complied with, by the states (Article 365).

A.  Only 1 is true.                 
B.  Only 2 is true.
C.  1 and 2 both are true.          
D.  1 and 2 both are false.
Answer» D.  1 and 2 both are false.
1096.

How many times and when was the proclamation of emergency made under Article 352?

A.  Once, in 1962, on account of the Chinese attack
B.  Twice, in 1962 and 1971
C.  Thrice, in 1962, 1979 and 1975: the third being on account of internal emergency
D.  None of the above
Answer» D.  None of the above
1097.

Which one of the following is true with regard to the effects of proclamation of emergency under Article 352?

A.  The Union can give executive directions to the states on any matter it likes.
B.  Parliament can make laws on any subject of the State List.
C.  The President can modify the distribution of revenues between the Union and the States.
D.  The duration of the Lok Sabha, when the proclamation is in effect, can be extended for two years at the maximum.
Answer» E.
1098.

What are the normal types of emergency according to the Constitution of India? Choose from the codes given. 1. National emergency 2. State emergency 3. Financial emergency

A. 1 only              
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3            
D. 1, 2, 3
Answer» E.
1099.

Assertion (A): The Constituent Assembly of 1946 was not elected on the basis of universal adult franchise. Reason (R): The Constituent Assembly was constituted under the scheme formulated by the Cabinet Mission Plan.

A.  Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
B.  Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C.  A is true but R is false
D.  A is false but R is true
Answer» B.  Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
1100.

Who among the following was the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly?

A.  Dr. B.R. Ambedkar                   
B.  K.M. Munshi
C.  Sir B.N. Rau                          
D.  T.T. Krishnamachari
Answer» D.  T.T. Krishnamachari