Explore topic-wise MCQs in Uncategorized topics.

This section includes 396 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Uncategorized topics knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

201.

A 65-year-old man, with a history of smoking, presents with chronic cough, haemoptysis and weight loss. His Chest X-Ray shows a cavitating lesion. What is the likely diagnosis?

A. adenocarcinoma
B. alveolar cell carcinoma
C. large cell carcinoma
D. small cell carcinoma
E. squamous cell carcinoma
Answer» F.
202.

What is the most common group classification of rhabdomyosarcoma at initial diagnosis?

A. Group I
B. Group II
C. Group III
D. Group IV
Answer» D. Group IV
203.

20- A 59 year old female smoker is diagnosed with oat cell carcinoma of the bronchus. Which of the following relating to this diagnosis is true?

A. The tumor is likely to be radiosensitive
B. occurs with equal frequency in smokers and non-smokers
C. has a 5 year survival greater than 20%
D. Is associated with the elaboration of ectopic ADH secretion
E. Is typically associated with ectopic parathormone secretion.
Answer» E. Is typically associated with ectopic parathormone secretion.
204.

Regarding G-CSF - the best description of its mechanism of action and role in chemotherapy is

A. reduced PMN nadir when used as prophylaxis
B. reduced duration of neutropenia when used as prophylaxis
C. not useful unless already neutropenic
D. reduce thrombocytopenia severity
E. potentiates effects of chemotherapy
Answer» B. reduced duration of neutropenia when used as prophylaxis
205.

Which of the following histologic subtypes of rhabdomyosarcoma has the worst prognosis?

A. Alveolar
B. Embryonal
C. Spindle cell
D. Botryoid
Answer» B. Embryonal
206.

Which of the following symptoms is most common in patients who present with endometrial cancer?

A. Pelvic pain
B. Low back pain
C. Vaginal bleeding
D. Hematuria
Answer» D. Hematuria
207.

The worst prognosis is associated with carcinoma of the:

A. esophagus
B. stomach
C. small intestine
D. colon
Answer» B. stomach
208.

Which of the following types of cancer is most frequently associated with isolated hepatic metastases at presentation?

A. Colorectal
B. Esophageal
C. Gastric
D. Lung
Answer» B. Esophageal
209.

Mutations of the p53 gene frequently occur in:

A. Huntingdon's Disease
B. Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus
C. Cystic fibrosis
D. Bronchial Carcinoma
E. Colonic polyps
Answer» E. Colonic polyps
210.

In contrast to carcinoma of the right colon, carcinoma of the left colon tends to be associated with:

A. anemia
B. diverticulosis
C. malabsorption
D. obstruction
E. no symptoms
Answer» E. no symptoms
211.

Which of the following is most characteristic of carcinoma of the esophagus?

A. produces symptoms early and is more curable than cancer of the stomach
B. difficult to cure because of local spread
C. characterized by widespread and early metastases
D. has a good response to chemotherapy and therefore is rarely excised or radiated
Answer» C. characterized by widespread and early metastases
212.

Concerning small intestinal fistulae, all the following are true EXCEPT:

A. A fistula may have a high output or a low output depending on its site.
B. High output fistulae occur in the upper small bowel.
C. Low output fistulae occur in the ileum.
D. Isotonic saline should be used to replace intravascular and interstitial volume in high output fistulae
E. The lower the fistula the higher the fluid and nutrient loss.
Answer» F.
213.

Which of the following concerning diamorphine elixir for the relief of pain in terminal patients is corrcet?

A. Analgesia is enhanced if cocaine is added
B. Constipation is a characteristic sequel to treatment
C. Dependence occurs rapidly
D. initial sedation typically continues whilst the drug is administered
E. the same amount of pain relief is produced as when the same dose is given via intramuscular injection
Answer» C. Dependence occurs rapidly
214.

All the following may predispose to colorectal cancer EXCEPT

A. Familial adenomatous polyposis
B. High fibre, low fat diets
C. Ulcerative colitis
D. Schistosomal colitis
E. Exposure to irradiation
Answer» C. Ulcerative colitis
215.

Concerning adenomatous polyps, all the following are true EXCEPT:

A. They may cause anaemia
B. They may cause diarrhea
C. They occur mainly in the ileum
D. They may initiate an intussusception
E. They have a malignant potential
Answer» D. They may initiate an intussusception
216.

Which of the following molecular mechanisms is specifically implicated in the oncogenesis of cervical cancer associated with prior HPV infection?

A. The E7 protein expression inactivates p53.
B. The E7 protein expression inhibits Rb function.
C. The E6 protein expression suppresses G -M cell cycle arrest. 2
D. The E6 protein expression activates c-myc.
Answer» C. The E6 protein expression suppresses G -M cell cycle arrest. 2
217.

The following is the most important prognostic determinant of survival after treatment for colorectal cancer?

A. Lymph node involvement
B. Transmural extension
C. Tumor size
D. Histologic differentiation
E. DNA content
Answer» B. Transmural extension
218.

Concerning colonic polyps:

A. Polyposis means the presence of hundreds of polyps, usually in the small intestine.
B. Pedunculated polyps are more likely to become malignant than sessile ones.
C. Villous adenomas are associated with hyperkalaemia.
D. Metaplastic polyps commonly become malignant.
E. Most adenocarcinomas arise within pre-existing adenomas.
Answer» F.
219.

Concerning lung cancer:

A. In Australia, the incidence in women is falling.
B. The use of chemotherapy in combination with radiotherapy in patients with stage III non-small cell lung cancer is associated with improved survival.
C. Chemotherapy for metastatic non-small cell lung cancer improves quality of life but not survival.
D. The optimal treatment for limited stage small cell lung cancer is with chemotherapy alone.
E. Paraneoplastic manifestations occur in the majority of patients.
Answer» C. Chemotherapy for metastatic non-small cell lung cancer improves quality of life but not survival.
220.

Concerning the prophylactic use of G-CSF during cancer chemotherapy:

A. it decreases the duration of neutropenia
B. it decreases the severity of the neutropenic nadir
C. it increases platelet numbers
D. it potentiates the effect of chemotherapy
E. it is only useful in established neutropenia
Answer» C. it increases platelet numbers
221.

Young male with germ cell cancer. He is on bleomycin. etoposide and cisplatinum. What side effect would make you stop the treatment?

A. Peripheral neuropathy
B. neutropenic septicaemia
C. interstitial lung disease
D. high tone hearing loss
Answer» C. interstitial lung disease
222.

A male heavy smoker develops increasing difficulty in swallowing gradually over six months. Constriction of the mid-esophagus is seen on x-ray of barium swallow. The most likely diagnosis is:

A. pulsion diverticulum
B. achalasia
C. hiatal hernia
D. squamous cell carcinoma
E. Mallory-Weiss syndrome
Answer» E. Mallory-Weiss syndrome
223.

Patient with germ cell tumor receiving BEP. Which side-effect would necessitate cessation of the responsible drug:

A. neutropenia
B. high-tone severe hearing loss
C. peripheral neuropathy
D. interstitial lung damage
E. none of above
Answer» B. high-tone severe hearing loss
224.

Carcinoma of the esophagus:

A. produces symptoms early and is more curable than carcinoma of the stomach
B. is difficult to cure because of local spread
C. is characterized by early widespread metastases
D. is usually undifferentiated
Answer» C. is characterized by early widespread metastases
225.

Carcinoma of the esophagus has a poor prognosis because:

A. metastases to liver or lung are usually present before the diagnosis is made
B. the lesion is not accessible to surgery
C. local spread usually prevents complete removal
D. the tumor is radioresistant
Answer» D. the tumor is radioresistant
226.

Which neoplasm is most FREQUENTLY found in the appendix?

A. carcinoid
B. villous adenoma
C. lymphoma
D. adenomatous polyp
E. adenocarcinoma
Answer» B. villous adenoma
227.

Which of the following body sites is most commonly involved in patients with rhabdomyosarcoma?

A. Thorax
B. Extremities
C. Head and neck
D. Genitourinary tract
Answer» D. Genitourinary tract
228.

Middle aged smoker. Whole of left lung white, collapse. Bronchoscopy shows an undifferentiated carcinoma in the left main bronchus. Presents with cough and haemoptysis. Small left clavicular lymph node palpable. Treatment:

A. Surgery
B. Radiotherapy
C. Chemotherapy
D. Palliation
E. Chemoradiation
Answer» D. Palliation
229.

On immunohistochemistry, classical Hodgkin s lymphoma Reed sternberg cells are likely to be

A. CD15(-), CD 30(+),CD45(-)
B. CD15(+), CD 30(+),CD45(+)
C. CD15(+), CD 30(+),CD45(-)
D. CD15(-), CD 30(+),CD45(+)
Answer» D. CD15(-), CD 30(+),CD45(+)
230.

A 62-year-old man with limited-stage small cell lung cancer and proximal muscular weakness is most likely to have which of the following conditions?

A. SIADH
B. Myasthenia gravis
C. Cerebellar degeneration
D. Eaton-Lambert syndrome
Answer» E.
231.

Which of the following factors is included in the international prognostic index (IPI) for non-Hodgkin lymphoma?

A. Histology
B. Weight loss
C. Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) level
D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
Answer» D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
232.

Which of the following conditions should be treated like small cell lung cancer?

A. Combined small cell lung cancer and non-small cell lung cancer
B. Non-small cell lung cancer with neuroendocrine features
C. Large cell neuroendocrine tumors
D. Atypical carcinoid tumors
Answer» B. Non-small cell lung cancer with neuroendocrine features
233.

Treatment of early stage favorable Hodgkin s lymphoma

A. necessarily includes radiotherapy
B. requires 6 to 8 cycles of multiagent chemotherapy
C. with 4 cycles of chemotherapy and low dose involved-filed radiotherapy is the standard of care
D. With complete response to 2 chemotherapy cycles further treatment is not needed.
Answer» D. With complete response to 2 chemotherapy cycles further treatment is not needed.
234.

Adenocarcinoma of the ascending colon is more likely than adenocarcinoma of the sigmoid colon to:

A. encircle the bowel, causing a stricture or obstruction
B. be bulky
C. both
D. neither
Answer» C. both
235.

Genes implicated in the pathogenesis of colorectal cancer include all the following EXCEPT:

A. Ki-ras gene
B. c-myc gene
C. APC gene
D. BRCA1 gene
E. P53 gene.
Answer» E. P53 gene.
236.

Which is most characteristic of carcinoma of the cecum or right colon (in contrast to carcinoma of the rectum)?

A. anemia
B. associated polyposis
C. bowel obstruction
D. diarrhea
Answer» B. associated polyposis
237.

Which of the following chemotherapy agents is most effective against soft tissue sarcoma?

A. Thiotepa
B. Cyclophosphamide
C. Dactinomycin
D. Doxorubicin
Answer» E.
238.

A 59-year-old man who is a heavy smoker presents with cough, shortness of breath, and a sensation of head fullness. Physical examination is notable for cervical venous distention and facial edema. A chest radiograph shows a widened superior mediastinum. What is the most appropriate initial intervention for this patient?

A. Initiation of radiation therapy while a diagnostic work-up is pursued
B. CT of the chest and consultation with a pulmonologist and a thoracic surgeon
C. CT of the chest and a venous dye study to rule out thrombosis of the superior vena cava
D. Mediastinoscopy with biopsy
E. Ventilation/perfusion scan
Answer» C. CT of the chest and a venous dye study to rule out thrombosis of the superior vena cava
239.

14 year old girl with Hodgkin's disease is treated with radiotherapy (mantle field). Which is the most likely secondary carcinoma that could develop

A. breast
B. Lung
C. thyroid
D. NHL
E. AML
Answer» B. Lung
240.

Patient gets bleomycin, etoposide, and cisplatin. Which cause for cessation of specific drug?

A. Infertility
B. Neutropenic sepsis
C. Interstitial lung disease
D. High frequency hearing loss
E. Vomiting
Answer» C. Interstitial lung disease
241.

Concerning Neurofibromatosis Type 1 (NF1), which one of the following statements is true?

A. Bilateral acoustic neuromas are common
B. Clinical severity in individuals is similar in a given family
C. New mutations occur rarely
D. Pigmented spots on the iris are a characteristic feature
E. The diagnosis is likely if two caf -au-lait patches are present
Answer» E. The diagnosis is likely if two caf -au-lait patches are present
242.

Which of the following chemotherapy agents recently has been shown to be effective in treating hormone-refractory prostate cancer?

A. Docetaxel
B. Gemcitabine
C. Oxaliplatin
D. Topotecan
Answer» B. Gemcitabine
243.

All of the following correctly describe carcinoma of the esophagus except:

A. male predominance
B. most frequently involves adenocarcinoma
C. patients usually over 50 years of age
D. most frequently of the squamous cell type
E. symptoms may occur late in the disease
Answer» C. patients usually over 50 years of age
244.

Which of the following anatomical sites is most commonly associated with extraosseous, soft tissue plasmacytomas?

A. Back
B. Pelvis
C. Lower extremity
D. Head and neck
Answer» E.
245.

What is the most common secondary malignant neoplasm inside the radiation field for patients with retinoblastoma?

A. Squamous cell carcinoma
B. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
C. Fibrosarcoma
D. Osteosarcoma
Answer» E.
246.

Which of the following Hodgkin lymphoma subtypes is most closely associated with the development of non-Hodgkin lymphoma?

A. Nodular sclerosis
B. Lymphocyte depleted
C. Lymphocyte predominant
D. Lymphocyte rich
Answer» D. Lymphocyte rich
247.

Small cell lung carcinoma can cause (?all of the following except)

A. Hypercalcemia
B. Cushing s syndrome
C. Clubbing
D. Lambert Eaton Myasthenic syndrome
E. SIADH
Answer» B. Cushing s syndrome
248.

Which of the following cell markers is most commonly associated with classic Hodgkin lymphoma?

A. CD15+, CD30+
B. CD15+, CD30-
C. CD15-, CD30+
D. CD15-, CD30-
Answer» B. CD15+, CD30-
249.

A 56-year-old woman is recently diagnosed with small cell carcinoma of the lung. Which of the following non-metastatic manifestations is she most likely to develop?

A. myasthenia gravis
B. Eaton-Lambert syndrome
C. ectopic PTH-related peptide secretion
D. erythema gyratum repens
E. hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy (HPOA)
Answer» C. ectopic PTH-related peptide secretion
250.

A young male has non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. The LMO starts prednisone whilst awaiting a haematology admission. He presents unwell with WCC previously 30, now 2, urate 2.3, K 8.0, phosphate 10, Cr .25. The most likely diagnosis?

A. Urate nephropathy
B. Tumor lysis syndrome
C. Dehydration
D. Lymphoma infiltration of kidneys
E. Hyperleucocytosis
Answer» C. Dehydration