Explore topic-wise MCQs in Commerce.

This section includes 1133 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Commerce knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1001.

The expression ‘firm’ would include a ____

A. Company
B. LLP
C. HUF
D. AOP
Answer» C. HUF
1002.

In case of discontinuance of HUF business, the liability would arise till the date of

A. Discontinuance
B. Court verdict
C. As mutually agreed upon by the HUF members
D. Determination of liability by the Department.
Answer» B. Court verdict
1003.

As per this section, the member or group of members of HUF or AOP is/are liable to pay tax on taxable supplies -

A. Even after its partition
B. Upto the time of partition
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. None of the above
Answer» C. Both (a) and (b)
1004.

The dues recoverable under this section includes

A. Only Interest
B. Any dues which are recoverable under this Act
C. Only tax
D. Only Penalty
Answer» C. Only tax
1005.

The legal representative or any other person of an individual who is dead is liable to pay tax, only if -

A. The business has been carried on by the legal representative
B. The business has been carried by the legal representative or any other person
C. The business has been carried by any other person
D. None of the above.
Answer» C. The business has been carried by any other person
1006.

Appeal before the appellate authority can be filed within how many days?

A. 30 days
B. 60 days
C. 90 days
D. 120 days
Answer» B. 60 days
1007.

Who can appeal to the Appellate Authority?

A. Jurisdictional CGST/SGST officer or the applicant
B. Any Taxable Person
C. Any citizen concerned about the ruling passed
D. All of the above
Answer» B. Any Taxable Person
1008.

Whether the ruling pronounced under Section 98 of CGST Act, 2017 have prospective or retrospective effect?

A. Prospective effect
B. Retrospective effect
C. Prospective/Retrospective effect based on case to case
D. None of the above
Answer» B. Retrospective effect
1009.

Within how many days the Authority shall pronounce its decision on advance ruling from the date of receipt of application

A. 30 days
B. 60 days
C. 90 days
D. 120 days
Answer» D. 120 days
1010.

What procedure should follow if the members of the Authority differ on any question on which the advance ruling is sought?

A. The members of the authority shall state the point or points on which they differ and make a reference to the Appellate Authority for hearing and decision on such question.
B. The Authority will not take any decision and reject the application
C. The Authority will remand the case to jurisdictional officer
D. None of the above
Answer» B. The Authority will not take any decision and reject the application
1011.

Who shall make an application for advance ruling?

A. Department
B. Applicant
C. Appellate Authority
D. None of the above
Answer» C. Appellate Authority
1012.

Maximum number of monthly installments permissible under section 80 is:

A. 36
B. 12
C. 48
D. 24
Answer» E.
1013.

The following amounts due cannot be paid through installments,

A. Self-assessed tax shown in return
B. Short paid tax for which notice has been issued
C. Arrears of tax
D. Concealed tax
Answer» B. Short paid tax for which notice has been issued
1014.

Who is liable to pay tax if the business of an individual is discontinued before his death

A. Board of Directors or Manager
B. Any member of his person who is willing to pay
C. Legal representative of taxable person
D. Employee
Answer» D. Employee
1015.

After how many days, the proper officer may cause the sale of distressed property?

A. 30 days
B. 60 days
C. 90 days
D. 120 days
Answer» B. 60 days
1016.

When can the Authority declare the advance ruling pronounced as void?

A. If ruling is obtained by suppression of material facts
B. If the applicant is in the business of supplies on which clarification has been sought
C. If the applicant does not engage in the business of supplies after 6 months of obtaining the ruling
D. If a Supreme Court judgement is pronounced on the same issue and the judgement is exactly the opposite of the clarification issued under the ruling
Answer» B. If the applicant is in the business of supplies on which clarification has been sought
1017.

Who can apply for rectification of error on record?

A. Applicant
B. Concerned officer or Jurisdictional Officer
C. Advance Ruling Authority or the Appellate Authority on its own accord can rectify the error
D. All of the above
Answer» E.
1018.

The Advance Ruling pronounced by the Appellate Authority shall be binding on

A. The applicant who sought the advance ruling.
B. The jurisdictional officer in respect of the applicant
C. (a) and (b)
D. None of the above
Answer» D. None of the above
1019.

When should the opportunity of being heard be given to applicant or the appellant for rectification of advance ruling?

A. If the rectification has the effect of enhancing the tax liability. Advance Ruling 213 Indirect Taxes Committee
B. If the rectification has the effect of reducing the amount of admissible input tax credit.
C. (a) or (b)
D. None of the above
Answer» D. None of the above
1020.

Who has the power to amend the order issued under section 98 or 101, to rectify any error apparent from record?

A. Advance Ruling Authority
B. Appellate Authority for the Advance Ruling
C. Authority or, as the case may be, the Appellate Authority.
D. None of the above.
Answer» D. None of the above.
1021.

Under which circumstance the members of the Appellate Authority deem that no advance ruling can be issued in respect of the questions covered under the appeal

A. If the members of the Appellate Authority differ on any point or points referred to in appeal
B. If the members of the Advance Ruling Authority differ on any point or points referred to in appeal
C. Applicant wants to withdraw the application
D. Both (a) and (c)
Answer» B. If the members of the Advance Ruling Authority differ on any point or points referred to in appeal
1022.

Recovery of amount payable by a defaulter can be made from,

A. Customer
B. Bank
C. Post Office
D. All of the above
Answer» E.
1023.

If it is expedient in the interest of the revenue, can the proper officer after recording reasons in writing, require a taxable person to make payment of tax demand within shorter period as may be specified by him?

A. Yes
B. No
C. With prior permission of not below the rank of Joint Commissioner
D. None of the above
Answer» B. No
1024.

The time limit for payment of tax demand is ………………from the date of service of the order,

A. 3 months
B. 90 days
C. 6 months
D. 1 year
Answer» B. 90 days
1025.

Whether a taxable person who has paid CGST& SGST or, as the case may be, CGST & UTGST on a transaction considered by him to be an intra-state supply, but which is subsequently held to be an inter-state supply is required to pay interest?

A. Yes
B. No
C. At proper officer’s discretion
D. None of the above
Answer» C. At proper officer’s discretion
1026.

Which of the following is NOT a requirement for claiming the exemption from GST on job work?

A. Job work should be for a specified purposes such as processing, testing, repair, etc
B. Goods should be returned after completion with six months or such extended period
C. Manufacturer should declare the details of inputs held in stock by the job worker on behalf of manufacturer
D. Job work should pay the GST even on returning the goods within the period of six months from appointed date
Answer» E.
1027.

Place of supply in case of installation of elevator is%!

A. Where the movement of elevator commences from the supplier’s place.
B. Where the delivery of elevator is taken.
C. Where the installation of elevator is made.
D. Where address of the recipient is mentioned in the invoice.
Answer» D. Where address of the recipient is mentioned in the invoice.
1028.

Input tax credit on capital goods and Inputs can be availed in%!

A. In thirty six installments
B. In twelve installments
C. In one installment
D. In six installments
Answer» D. In six installments
1029.

Is Input tax to be reversed in case of supply of capital goods%!

A. Yes fully
B. No
C. Yes, to extent of credit taken as reduced by prescribed percentage or tax on transaction value whichever is higher
D. Yes to the extent of transaction value of such goods
Answer» D. Yes to the extent of transaction value of such goods
1030.

Which of the following is an intrastate supply?%!

A. Supplier of goods located in Nagpur and place of supply of goods SEZ located in Mumbai
B. Supplier of goods located in Kolkata and place of supply of goods in Bangalore
C. Supplier of goods located in Goa and place of supply of goods in Goa
D. All the above
Answer» D. All the above
1031.

In case supplier has deposited the taxes but the receiver has not received the goods, is receiver entitled to avail credit?%!

A. Yes, it will be automatically show in recipient monthly returns.
B. No, as one of the conditions of section 16(2) is not fulfilled.
C. Yes if the receiver can prove later that goods are received subsequently
D. None of the above
Answer» C. Yes if the receiver can prove later that goods are received subsequently
1032.

Can Mr. A avail credit on Input services or capital goods held in stock, in case of new registration/voluntary Registration%!

A. Yes
B. No
C. Yes on Input services only
D. Yes on capital goods only
Answer» C. Yes on Input services only
1033.

Is there any ceiling limit prescribed on the rate under IGST?%!

A. 12%
B. 18%
C. 28%
D. 40%
Answer» E.
1034.

When can a registered person avail credit on inputs?%!

A. on receipt of goods
B. on receipt of documents
C. Both
D. None of the above
Answer» D. None of the above
1035.

Mr. A obtains new registration, voluntary registration, change of scheme from composition to regular scheme and from exempted goods/services to taxable goods/services. He can avail credit on inputs lying in stock. What is the time limit for taking said credit%!

A. 1 year from the date of invoice
B. 3 year from the date of invoice
C. 5 year from the date of invoice
D. None of the above
Answer» B. 3 year from the date of invoice
1036.

Can a person apply for registration without PAN%!

A. No
B. Yes
Answer» B. Yes
1037.

Whether credit on capital goods can be taken immediately on receipt of the goods?%!

A. Yes
B. After usage of such capital goods
C. After capitalizing in books of Accounts
D. None of the above
Answer» B. After usage of such capital goods
1038.

Any input tax paid on purchase of goods or services by an assessee for employees is eligible for ITC?%!

A. No
B. Yes
C. Yes, on the services notified which are obligatory for an employer to provide to its employees under any law for the time being in force
D. Not applicable
Answer» D. Not applicable
1039.

SAC Code Stands for%!

A. Services Accounting Code
B. Software Accounting Code
C. System Accounting Code
D. Service Application Code
Answer» B. Software Accounting Code
1040.

Is definition of Inputs includes capital goods%!

A. Yes
B. No
Answer» C.
1041.

Can Banking Company or Financial Institution withdraw the option of availing actual credit or 50% credit anytime in the financial year?%!

A. Yes
B. No
Answer» C.
1042.

Balance in electronic credit ledger can be utilized against which liability?%!

A. Output tax payable
B. Interest payable
C. Penalty
D. All of above
Answer» B. Interest payable
1043.

What deductions are allowed from the transaction value%!

A. Discounts mention on invoice
B. Packing Charges mention on invoice
C. Any amount paid by customer on behalf of the supplier
D. Freight charges mention on invoice
Answer» B. Packing Charges mention on invoice
1044.

Which one of the following is true?%!

A. A person can collect tax only he is registered
B. Registered person not liable to collect tax till his aggregate turnover exceeds threshold limit
C. A person can collect the tax during the period of his provisional registration
D. None of the above
Answer» B. Registered person not liable to collect tax till his aggregate turnover exceeds threshold limit
1045.

Which of the following requires amendment in the registration certificate?%!

A. Change of name of the registered person
B. Change in constitution of the registered person
C. Switching over form composition scheme to normal scheme or vice versa.
D. All of the above
Answer» E.
1046.

Can a registered person under Composition Scheme claim input tax credit?%!

A. Yes
B. No
C. Input tax credit on inward supply of goods only can be claimed
D. Input tax credit on inward supply of services only can be claimed
Answer» C. Input tax credit on inward supply of goods only can be claimed
1047.

*/*_Which one of the following is true??

A. A person can collect tax only he is registered
B. Registered person not liable to collect tax till his aggregate turnover exceeds threshold limit
C. A person can collect the tax during the period of his provisional registration
D. None of the above
Answer» B. Registered person not liable to collect tax till his aggregate turnover exceeds threshold limit
1048.

*/*_Which of the following requires amendment in the registration certificate??

A. Change of name of the registered person
B. Change in constitution of the registered person
C. Switching over form composition scheme to normal scheme or vice versa.
D. All of the above
Answer» E.
1049.

*/*_Can a registered person under Composition Scheme claim input tax credit??

A. Yes
B. No
C. Input tax credit on inward supply of goods only can be claimed
D. Input tax credit on inward supply of services only can be claimed
Answer» C. Input tax credit on inward supply of goods only can be claimed
1050.

*/*_What deductions are allowed from the transaction value?

A. Discounts mention on invoice
B. Packing Charges mention on invoice
C. Any amount paid by customer on behalf of the supplier
D. Freight charges mention on invoice
Answer» B. Packing Charges mention on invoice