Explore topic-wise MCQs in Transcription.

This section includes 74 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Transcription knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

Which of the following is not a type of RNA?

A. mRNA
B. cRNA
C. rRNA
D. tRNA
Answer» C. rRNA
2.

What are snRNPs (small nuclear ribonucleic particles)?

A. RNA molecules that convey genetic information from DNA to the ribosome
B. RNA molecules that serve as the link between the nucleotide sequence of nucleic acids and the amino acid sequence of proteins
C. RNA component of the ribosome, essential for protein synthesis
D. RNA protein complexes that combine with pre-mRNA and other proteins to form a spliceosome
Answer» E.
3.

What are exons?

A. Site where repressor proteins bind
B. Genetic information coding for an amino acid sequence that will form a functional protein
C. Set of genes that are adjacent to one another in the genome and are coordinately controlled
D. Intervening non-coding segments of DNA
Answer» C. Set of genes that are adjacent to one another in the genome and are coordinately controlled
4.

Which of the following processes is not a type of RNA processing carried out by eukaryotes?

A. Polyadenylation of the 3' end
B. Nucleotide excision repair
C. Capping of the 5' end
D. Splicing and removal of introns
Answer» C. Capping of the 5' end
5.

During transcription of a eukaryotic cell, what determines the template strand?

A. The base sequence of the operator
B. The base sequence of the promoter
C. The location of the MET start codon
D. The base sequence of the enhancer
Answer» C. The location of the MET start codon
6.

Which of the following best describes distant regulatory sequences that influence gene expression?

A. Transcriptional start sites
B. Introns
C. Promoters
D. Enhancers
Answer» E.
7.

What event is indicative of transcription initiation?

A. Telomerase lengthens the telomeres of the DNA
B. The RNA strand begins to be synthesized
C. RNA polymerase is removed from the DNA
D. RNA polymerase binds to the promoter
Answer» E.
8.

When does alternative splicing occur?

A. Following mRNA polyadenylation
B. Following mRNA loading into ribosome
C. Following pre-mRNA transcription in the nucleus
D. Following mRNA translocation to the cytosol
Answer» D. Following mRNA translocation to the cytosol
9.

Which of the following are methods for termination of transcription in prokaryotes?

I. Release factor binding

II. Rho-mediated termination

III. Hairpin loop (stem loop) formation

A. III only
B. I, II, and III
C. II and III
D. I only
Answer» D. I only
10.

What element(s) do all eukaryotic promoter regions share?

A. All of these
B. A basal promoter (TATA box)
C. None of these
D. Enhancers that accept binding agents
Answer» B. A basal promoter (TATA box)
11.

How many base pairs of DNA is transcribed by RNA polymerase in one go?

A. 5-6
B. 3
C. 4
D. 7-8
Answer» E.
12.

Which of the following is used to describe the time taken by RNA polymerase to leave the promoter?

A. Promoter clearance time
B. Promoter clearance time
C. Elongation factor
D. Mean time
Answer» B. Promoter clearance time
13.

Which of the following ensure stable binding of RNA polymerase at the promoter site?

A. DNA photolyase
B. Sigma factor
C. DNA glycosylase
D. RecA
Answer» C. DNA glycosylase
14.

What is the work of the sigma factor in transcription?

A. Helicase action
B. Transcription initiation
C. Transcription elongation
D. Transcription termination
Answer» C. Transcription elongation
15.

Name the sigma factor which is used for promoter recognition?

A. Sigma 32
B. Sigma 70
C. Sigma 60
D. Sigma 40
Answer» C. Sigma 60
16.

Who discovered RNA polymerase?

A. Samuel B. Weiss
B. Nirenberg
C. Watson and Crick
D. Darwin
Answer» B. Nirenberg
17.

Which of the following is TRUE for the RNA polymerase activity?

A. DNA dependent DNA synthesis
B. Direct repair
C. DNA dependent RNA synthesis
D. RNA dependent RNA synthesis
Answer» D. RNA dependent RNA synthesis
18.

Name the site where upstream sequences located?

A. Prior to start point
B. After the startpoint
C. Right border of DNA
D. In the middle of DNA
Answer» B. After the startpoint
19.

Mark the statement which is INCORRECT about the transcription unit?

A. It is a transcribed segment of DNA
B. Eukaryotes have monocistronic transcription unit
C. Prokaryotes also have a monocistronic transcription unit
D. Immediate product of transcription is primary transcript
Answer» D. Immediate product of transcription is primary transcript
20.

Like replication, transcription also occurs bidirectionally.

A. True
B. False
Answer» C.
21.

Which polymerase is involved in transcribing ribosomal RNA (except 5S rRNA)?

A. DNA polymerase V
B. RNA polymerase III
C. RNA polymerase I
D. DNA polymerase IV
Answer» D. DNA polymerase IV
22.

Which of the following is not dependent on the C-terminal domain (CTD) of RNA polymerase II?

A. None of the other answers
B. Polyadenylation
C. mRNA splicing
D. 5' capping
Answer» B. Polyadenylation
23.

What is the role of the promoter region in the regulation of gene expression?

A. Bind negative regulators to inhibit gene expression
B. Recruit RNA polymerase and transcription factors to DNA
C. Alter gene expression by binding transcription factors
D. Allow for alternative splicing and recombination of genetic components
Answer» C. Alter gene expression by binding transcription factors
24.

Before RNA polymerase can initiate transcription, this protein must bind to it, creating the RNA polymerase holoenzyme and allowing for the initiation of transcription.

A.
B. B.
C. C.
D. D.
Answer» D. D.
25.

Transcription factors that are the first to bind DNA in heterochromatin regions, often promote euchromatin formation, and recruit other transcriptional machinery to promote transcription are best known as which of the following?

A. Co-factors
B. Pioneer factors
C. DNA Polymerases
D. RNA holoenzyme
Answer» C. DNA Polymerases
26.

Which of the following best describes the key function of helicases during transcription?

A. Re-annealing of two DNA strands once transcription and translation processes are complete.
B. Relief of tension in the DNA strands to prevent breakage.
C. Cleaving methyl groups from an unwound DNA strand
D. Separation of two strands of DNA; "unwinding" gives polymerases access to the strand.
Answer» E.
27.

Which of the following subunits of RNA polymerase is solely required for initiation of transcription?

A. (alpha)
B. (sigma)
C. (omega)
D. (beta)
Answer» C. (omega)
28.

Which of the following codons is the mRNA start codon that initiates translation?

A. AUG
B. UAG
C. UGA
D. UAA
Answer» B. UAG
29.

In eukaryotes, which RNA polymerase makes rRNA?

A. RNA polymerase IV
B. RNA polymerase II
C. RNA polymerase I
D. RNA polymerase III
Answer» D. RNA polymerase III
30.

Transcription by E. coli polymerase occurs in

A. four phases known as initiation, propagation, elongation and termination
B. three phases known as initiation, elongation and termination
C. two phases known as initiation and termination
D. none of the above
Answer» C. two phases known as initiation and termination
31.

Rho-dependent termination of transcription in E. coli

A. requires ATP
B. requires about 50 nucleotides of uncomplexed mRNA
C. both (a) and (b)
D. removes mRNA and holoenzyme from the DNA
Answer» D. removes mRNA and holoenzyme from the DNA
32.

Mark the one, which is NOT the transcription inhibitor in eukaryotes.

A. Rifampicin
B. Acridine dye
C. Actinomycin D
D. Rho factor
Answer» E.
33.

Name the one intrinsic terminator of transcription.

A. Intercalating agents
B. Rho independent
C. Rho dependent
D. Acridine orange
Answer» C. Rho dependent
34.

Which of the following transcription termination technique has RNA dependent ATPase activity?

A. Intercalating agents
B. Rho dependent
C. Rho independent
D. Rifampcin
Answer» C. Rho independent
35.

Which of the level of protein structure is incorrectly matched to its description?

A. Primary structure is the linear amino acid sequence of a protein
B. Tertiary structure is the two-dimensional structure of a protein
C. Secondary structure is determined by hydrogen bonding of the amino acid backbone
D. Quaternary structure is the three-dimensional structure of a multi-subunit protein
Answer» C. Secondary structure is determined by hydrogen bonding of the amino acid backbone
36.

The enzyme required for transcription is

A. RNAase
B. DNA polymerase
C. RNA polymerase
D. Restriction enzymes
Answer» D. Restriction enzymes
37.

In prokaryotes what site on the mRNA does the ribosome bind to initiate translation?

A. The 3' untranslated region
B. The poly adenine tail
C. The Shine-Dalgarno sequence
D. The promoter
Answer» D. The promoter
38.

Most translation occurs by a mRNA cap-dependent mechanism, however, translation can occur by cap-independent initiation. One mechanism by which eukaryotic cells can initiate cap-independent translation is by which of the following approaches?

A. Poly(A)-binding protein
B. None of these
C. Internal ribosome entry site
D. elF4F initiation complex
Answer» D. elF4F initiation complex
39.

Which of the following ensures that viral gene translation occurs even when host translation is inhibited?

A. Internal Ribosomal Entry Sites (IRES)
B. Promoter
C. 3' poly-A tail
D. 5' guanine cap
Answer» B. Promoter
40.

Which amino acid is the "start" amino acid in a peptide chain?

A. Methionine
B. Arginine
C. Tyrosine
D. Threonine
Answer» B. Arginine
41.

Which of the following is not a type of modification that can occur after translation?

A. Trimming
B. Phosphorylation
C. Proteasomal degradation
D. 5' capping
Answer» E.
42.

Which of the following is not a phase in translation?

A. Initiation
B. Termination
C. Elongation
D. Modification
Answer» E.
43.

Which of the following most accurately describes the chronological order of ribosome biogenesis in eukaryotes?

A. Ribosomal proteins are translated in the cytoplasm and transported to the nucleolus. At the same time, rRNA genes are being rapidly transcribed in the nucleolus. rRNA and ribosomal proteins form the 60S and 40S subunits in the nucleolus and are then transported to the cytoplasm for functional ribosome assembly.
B. Ribosomal proteins are translated in the cytoplasm. At the same time, rRNA genes are being rapidly transcribed in the nucleolus. rRNA is transported to the cytoplasm where the rRNA and ribosomal proteins form the 60S and 40S ribosomal subunits.
C. Ribosomal proteins are translated in the cytoplasm and transported to the nucleolus. At the same time, rRNA genes are being rapidly transcribed in the cytoplasm. rRNA and ribosomal proteins form the 60S and 40S subunits in the cytoplasm.
D. Ribosomal proteins are translated in the nucleous and transported to the cytoplasm. At the same time, rRNA genes are being rapidly transcribed in the nucleolus. rRNA and ribosomal proteins form the 60S and 4
Answer» B. Ribosomal proteins are translated in the cytoplasm. At the same time, rRNA genes are being rapidly transcribed in the nucleolus. rRNA is transported to the cytoplasm where the rRNA and ribosomal proteins form the 60S and 40S ribosomal subunits.
44.

How many ribosomal binding sites are there and what are their functions?

A. There are three sites. A site binds aminoacyl-tRNA, P site binds peptidyl-tRNA, E site binds free tRNA before ribosomal exit
B. There are three sites. A site binds peptidyl-tRNA, P site binds aminoacyl-tRNA, E site binds free tRNA before ribosomal exit
C. There are two sites. A site binds free tRNA before ribosomal exit, P site binds aminoacyl-tRNA
D. There are three sites. A site binds free tRNA before ribosomal exit, P site binds aminoacyl-tRNA, E site binds peptidyl-tRNA
Answer» B. There are three sites. A site binds peptidyl-tRNA, P site binds aminoacyl-tRNA, E site binds free tRNA before ribosomal exit
45.

On which of the following molecules could you find an anticodon?

A. rRNA
B. tRNA
C. mRNA
D. miRNA
Answer» C. mRNA
46.

In which of the following organelles does the initial linkage of a sugar for post-translation modification N-linked glycosylation most commonly occur?

A. Golgi apparatus
B. Endoplasmic reticulum
C. Nucleus
D. Mitochondria
Answer» C. Nucleus
47.

Small GTPases are important molecular switches and signaling pathways. What proteins are responsible for promoting the activation of these small GTPases?

A. Kinases
B. Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide
C. Guanine nucleotide exchange factors
D. Phosphatases
Answer» D. Phosphatases
48.

Which of the following is not an example of post-translational modification?

A. Myristoylation
B. Polyadenylation
C. Alkylation
D. Ubiquitination
Answer» C. Alkylation
49.

The 5' cap on eukaryotic mRNA molecules is recognized by which of the following proteins?

A. 40s ribosomal subunit
B. eIF4e
C. PABP
D. RNA polymerase
Answer» C. PABP
50.

When conducting a stain of chromosomes, certain regions along the chromosome will stain more darkly than the rest. This is due to the fact that these regions are more tightly condensed. What is the functional outcome of having one region more condensed (heterochromatin) than the rest (euchromatin)?

A. Heterochromatin is typically not transcribed/transcribed at a lower rate because the tight packing limits accessibility to polymerases.
B. Heterochromatin is transcribed at a high frequency because there are a high number of genes in a small area.
C. Heterochromatin does not contain any genes and is a structural component of the chromosome.
D. Heterochromatin unpacking requires many ATP and is energetically expensive.
Answer» B. Heterochromatin is transcribed at a high frequency because there are a high number of genes in a small area.