1.

A mapping f : X -> Y is one one if :

A. f(x<sub>1</sub>) ≠ f(x<sub>2</sub>) for all x<sub>1</sub>, x<sub>2</sub> in X.
B. If f(x<sub>1</sub>) = f(x<sub>2</sub>) then x<sub>1</sub> = x<sub>2</sub> for all x<sub>1</sub>, x<sub>2</sub> in X.
C. f(x<sub>1</sub>) = f(x<sub>2</sub>) for all x<sub>1</sub>, x<sub>2</sub> in X.
D. None of the mentioned
Answer» C. f(x<sub>1</sub>) = f(x<sub>2</sub>) for all x<sub>1</sub>, x<sub>2</sub> in X.


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