

MCQOPTIONS
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1. |
A mapping f : X -> Y is one one if : |
A. | f(x<sub>1</sub>) ≠ f(x<sub>2</sub>) for all x<sub>1</sub>, x<sub>2</sub> in X. |
B. | If f(x<sub>1</sub>) = f(x<sub>2</sub>) then x<sub>1</sub> = x<sub>2</sub> for all x<sub>1</sub>, x<sub>2</sub> in X. |
C. | f(x<sub>1</sub>) = f(x<sub>2</sub>) for all x<sub>1</sub>, x<sub>2</sub> in X. |
D. | None of the mentioned |
Answer» C. f(x<sub>1</sub>) = f(x<sub>2</sub>) for all x<sub>1</sub>, x<sub>2</sub> in X. | |