1.

A mapping f : X → Y is one one if __________

A. f(x1) ≠ f(x2) for all x1, x2 in X
B. If f(x1) = f(x2) then x1 = x2 for all x1, x2 in X
C. f(x1) = f(x2) for all x1, x2 in X
D. None of the mentioned
Answer» C. f(x1) = f(x2) for all x1, x2 in X


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