Explore topic-wise MCQs in Structured Query Language (SQL).

This section includes 88 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Structured Query Language (SQL) knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

Which of the following is used to determine the appropriate stringency (Wallace rule)?

A. Tm = 2 x (No.of G:C base pair) + 4 x (No.of A:T base pair)
B. Tm = 4 x (No.of A:T base pair) + 2 x (No.of G:C base pair)
C. Tm = 4 x (No.of G:C base pair) + 2 x (No.of A:T base pair)
D. Tm = 69.3° + 0.41 (%)G+C -650/1
Answer» D. Tm = 69.3° + 0.41 (%)G+C -650/1
2.

In the study of one experiment it was found that the value of Tm for DNA is = 40° C. If the cell has 20% GC at the above Tm, then what will be value of 'Tm' if the GC% increases to 60%?

A. Remains same
B. Increases
C. Decreases
D. Can not be compared
Answer» C. Decreases
3.

Without telomerase, what would happen to the ends of chromosomes after each round of replication?

A. Chromosomes would become progressively shorter
B. Nothing would happen
C. Chromosomes would get longer
D. none of the above
Answer» B. Nothing would happen
4.

An RNA primer is synthesized by

A. DNA helicases
B. ligase
C. DNA topoisomerase
D. primase
Answer» E.
5.

Proteins which help to open the double helix for DNA synthesis are

A. DNA helicases
B. single stranded binding proteins
C. ligase
D. DNA topoisomerase
Answer» B. single stranded binding proteins
6.

Which polymerase is active in DNA repairing

A. Polymerase I
B. Polymerase II
C. Polymerase III
D. none of these
Answer» C. Polymerase III
7.

The DNA polymerase in bacteria, responsible for DNA synthesis is

A. Polymerase I
B. Polymerase II
C. Polymerase III
D. all of these
Answer» D. all of these
8.

There is a single origin for DNA replication in bacteria. How many origins of replication are found in the much larger genomes of eukaryotes such as mammals?

A. One
B. About 100
C. Thousands and tens of thousands
D. none of these
Answer» D. none of these
9.

After one replication in 15N, how many bands should be observed in a cesium chloride gradient?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. A smear
Answer» B. Two
10.

In a cesium chloride gradient, DNA labeled with 15N and centrifuged will form a band

A. above DNA containing 14N
B. below DNA containing 14N
C. with 14N-containing DNA
D. all of these
Answer» C. with 14N-containing DNA
11.

An important difference between eukaryotic and prokaryotic DNA replication is

A. eukaryotic DNA polymerases are faster
B. more DNA polymerases are found in eukaryotes
C. multiple origins of replication in eukaryotes
D. RNA primers are not required in eukaryotes
Answer» D. RNA primers are not required in eukaryotes
12.

DNA replication results in

A. two completely new DNA molecules
B. two DNA molecules such that each one contains a strand of the original
C. one new DNA molecules 1 old molecule
D. one new molecule of RNA
Answer» C. one new DNA molecules 1 old molecule
13.

Okazaki fragments occur on the __________ and are bonded together by __________

A. Leading strand, polymerase
B. mRNA, anticodons
C. Lagging strand, ligase
D. tRNA, polymerase
Answer» D. tRNA, polymerase
14.

The nicks or gaps between Okazaki fragments are eventually sealed by

A. gyrase
B. DNA ligase
C. RNA ligase
D. polymerase
Answer» C. RNA ligase
15.

Overwinding or overtightening of DNA during replication is caused and removed by

A. DNAb, DNA polymerase
B. DNAa, gyrase
C. DNAb, gyrase
D. Single stranded protein, DNAa
Answer» D. Single stranded protein, DNAa
16.

The rapid appearance of HIV-1 strains that are resistant to AIDS drugs is due in part to which of the following property of its reverse transcriptase?

A. AZT (zidovudine) is too expensive to be taken in effective doses
B. The RNase H domain of p66 causes error prone synthesis
C. It lacks a proofreading exonuclease
D. It has low affinity for the correct dNTP's
Answer» D. It has low affinity for the correct dNTP's
17.

The melting of 40-45 bp at the oriC site of E. coli requires

A. DNA + ATP + HU
B. DNA + ATP + HU + DNAb
C. DNA+ ATP + HU + DNAb + DNAa
D. DNA + ATP + HU + DNAb + DNAa + Pol III holoenzyme
Answer» B. DNA + ATP + HU + DNAb
18.

The RNA primers used to initiate replication in E. coli

A. result in Okazaki fragments on leading strand
B. are removed by Pol I
C. are joined together by DNA ligase
D. are removed by helicase + ATP
Answer» C. are joined together by DNA ligase
19.

Reverse transcriptase produces

A. DNA from peptides
B. RNA from DNA
C. RNA from RNA
D. DNA from RNA
Answer» E.
20.

Replication in E. coli is initiated by the generation of short RNA primers using

A. RNA polymerase
B. primase
C. reverse transcriptase
D. both (a) and (b)
Answer» E.
21.

The 5' and 3' numbers are related to the

A. length of the DNA strand
B. carbon number in sugar
C. the number of phosphates
D. the base pair rule
Answer» C. the number of phosphates
22.

The role of primase is to

A. dismantle RNA primer
B. cleave and unwinds short sections of DNA ahead of the replication fork
C. proofread base pairing
D. synthesize an RNA primer to begin the elongation process
Answer» E.
23.

What is the name given to the points at which a DNA helix is unwound and new strands develop?

A. Replication origins
B. Replication forks
C. Leading strands
D. Okazaki fragments
Answer» C. Leading strands
24.

Which of the following are short nucleotides strands made by DNA polymerase working in the opposite direction of the replication fork?

A. Leading strands
B. Okazaki fragments
C. Primers
D. Lagging strand
Answer» C. Primers
25.

Which enzyme catalyzes the elongation of DNA molecules?

A. DNA polymerase
B. Helicase
C. DNA ligase
D. Primase
Answer» B. Helicase
26.

One hypothesis of DNA replication suggested that the parental DNA molecules are broken into fragments. Both strands of DNA in each of the daughter molecules are made up of an assortment of parental and new DNA. This statement refers to which hypothesis?

A. Conservative theory
B. Dispersive theory
C. Semi-conservative theory
D. Evolutionary theory
Answer» C. Semi-conservative theory
27.

What is the IUPAC code for an A, C, T ambiguity in a nucleic acid sequence?

A. B
B. H
C. S
D. None of these
Answer» C. S
28.

How does ethidium bromide interact with DNA?

A. It binds to adenine
B. It binds to phosphate
C. It intercalates between bases
D. It does not interact
Answer» D. It does not interact
29.

In a typical electrophoresis experiment, larger fragments of DNA move more

A. slowly, so they appear nearer the top of a gel photograph
B. quickly, so they appear nearer the top of a gel photograph
C. slowly, so they appear nearer the bottom of a gel photograph
D. quickly, so they appear nearer the bottom of a gel photograph
Answer» B. quickly, so they appear nearer the top of a gel photograph
30.

DNA segments capable of moving from one place in the genome to another is known as

A. transposons
B. retrovirus
C. introns
D. moving elements
Answer» B. retrovirus
31.

An enzyme that recognizes foreign DNA, and results in a cut in that DNA is called

A. transposase
B. helicase
C. reverse transcriptase
D. restriction endonuclease
Answer» E.
32.

Which of these drugs bind to DNA and cuts it, producing hydroxyl radicals?

A. Bleomycin
B. Erythromycin
C. Tunicamycin
D. All of these
Answer» B. Erythromycin
33.

The site on a bacterial chromosome that marks the initiation point for chromosome replication is called

A. Ori
B. a promoter
C. Pro
D. an initiation codon
Answer» B. a promoter
34.

The enzyme responsible for breaking the hydrogen bonds, and thus separating the DNA strands during DNA synthesis is

A. DNA polymerase
B. strandase
C. helicase
D. none of these
Answer» D. none of these
35.

In DNA replication, one new strand is synthesized complementary to an old (parent) strand and is referred as

A. mutational
B. semiconservative
C. discontinuous
D. antiparallel
Answer» C. discontinuous
36.

What does ligase do during replication of DNA?

A. Synthesizes the lagging strand
B. Makes copies of mRNA from DNA
C. Joins nicks in DNA strands
D. Digests mRNA when it is no longer needed
Answer» D. Digests mRNA when it is no longer needed
37.

Which of the following in DNA replication and transcription are common?

A. incorporation of deoxynucleotides
B. utilization the same enzyme
C. synthesis in the 5'-3' direction
D. none of the above
Answer» D. none of the above
38.

Which will require a higher temperature to denature?

A. DNA with a high G-C content
B. DNA with a high A-T content
C. RNA with a high G-C content
D. RNA with a high A-T content
Answer» B. DNA with a high A-T content
39.

The size of a linear DNA fragment in a gel can be estimated by

A. fluorescence in UV light
B. the sedimentation coefficient
C. the time it takes the gel to run
D. comparison with a molecular weight standard such as Hind III digested phage lambda
Answer» E.
40.

The replication of a linear DNA molecule in a eukaryotic chromosome creates a problem which is reported to be sorted out by

A. using enzyme called telomerase
B. shortening of the double stranded replicated portion
C. using RNA as a template
D. none of the above
Answer» B. shortening of the double stranded replicated portion
41.

DNA replication in eukaryotes occurs only in

A. G1 phase
B. S phase
C. G2 phase
D. M phase
Answer» C. G2 phase
42.

For the DNA replication in eukaryotes, the cell cycle consists of

A. G1, G2 and M phases
B. S, G2 and M phases
C. G1,S, G2 and M phases
D. G2 and M phases
Answer» D. G2 and M phases
43.

Each replication bubbles consists of

A. 3 replication forks
B. 2 replication forks
C. 4 replication forks
D. 1 replication forks
Answer» C. 4 replication forks
44.

Automated DNA sequencing uses the chain termination method

A. but with an oligonucleotide primer labeled with a fluorescent dye
B. but with a polynucleotide primer labeled with a fluorescent dye
C. with no primer
D. either (b) or (c)
Answer» B. but with a polynucleotide primer labeled with a fluorescent dye
45.

Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates, being need in the chain termination methods are

A. dATP
B. dGTP and dCTP
C. dTTP
D. all of these
Answer» E.
46.

DNA polymerases I also has

A. 5'-3' exonuclease activity
B. 3'-5'exonuclease activity
C. both (a) and (b)
D. 5'-3' endonuclease activity
Answer» C. both (a) and (b)
47.

Which of the following is an active site on its single polypeptide chain for DNA Polymerase I?

A. 5' → 3' polymerase
B. 3' → 5' exonuclease
C. 5' → 3' exonuclease
D. all of the above
Answer» B. 3' → 5' exonuclease
48.

E.coli DNA polymerases II and III lack

A. 5' → 3' exonuclease activity
B. 5' → 3' endonuclease activity
C. partially 5' → 3' exonuclease activity
D. partially 5' → 3' endonuclease activity
Answer» B. 5' → 3' endonuclease activity
49.

Which of the following species lack a 'classical' histone H1?

A. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
B. Strongylocentrotus purpuratus
C. Xenopus laevis
D. Arabidopsis thaliana
Answer» B. Strongylocentrotus purpuratus
50.

During conventional transformation experiments E. coli cells and plasmid DNA interacts in an environment of

A. high temperature and Ca++
B. low temperature and Ca++
C. high temperature and Mg++
D. low temperature and Mg++
Answer» C. high temperature and Mg++