Explore topic-wise MCQs in Biology.

This section includes 697 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Biology knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

251.

Mesangial cells:

A. have a role in the control of GFR
B. are similar to other endothelial cells in the vascular tree
C. are responsible for tubuloglomerular balance
D. contract in response to dopamine
E. relax in response to vasopressin
Answer» B. are similar to other endothelial cells in the vascular tree
252.

Glucose reabsorption is most marked in which segment of the glomerulus?

A. the proximal convoluted tubule
B. the distal convoluted tubule
C. the descending loop of Henle
D. the ascending loop of Henle
E. the collecting system
Answer» B. the distal convoluted tubule
253.

Amino acid reabsorption is most marked in which segment of the glomerulus?

A. the proximal convoluted tubule
B. the distal convoluted tubule
C. the descending loop of Henle
D. the ascending loop of Henle
E. the collecting duct
Answer» B. the distal convoluted tubule
254.

Substance X is freely filtered by the glomerulus and is not reabsorbed, nor secreted nor metabolized.If - serum x concentration = 0.020 mg/mlrenal artery x concentration = 0.020 mg/mlrenal vein x concentration = 0.002 mg/mlurine x concentration = 14 mg/mlurine flow = 54 ml/hrlymphatic x concentration = 0.00001 mg/mlhaematocrit = 0.45Renal plasma flow is:

A. 10.5 ml/min
B. 630 ml/min
C. 700 ml/min
D. 11.7 ml/min
E. 21.2 ml/min
Answer» D. 11.7 ml/min
255.

Substance X is freely filtered by the glomerulus and is not reabsorbed, nor secreted nor metabolized.If - serum x concentration = 0.020 mg/mlrenal artery x concentration = 0.020 mg/mlrenal vein x concentration = 0.002 mg/mlurine x concentration = 14 mg/mlurine flow = 54 ml/hrlymphatic x concentration = 0.00001 mg/mlhaematocrit = 0.45Then the CLEARANCE of X is:

A. 10.5 ml/min
B. 630 ml/min
C. 10.5 mg/min
D. 630 mg/min
E. 60 ml/min
Answer» C. 10.5 mg/min
256.

Regarding the glomerulus filtration fx:

A. it allows passage of molecules up to 4nm diameter freely, and up to 8nm with some difficulty depending on charge
B. positively charged molecules pass more easily than neutral
C. endothelial pores have a greater diameter than podocyte filtration slits
D. the basal lamina contains interruptions
Answer» B. positively charged molecules pass more easily than neutral
257.

Regarding the dorsal column:

A. carries ipsilateral pain and temperature
B. ascends to the nuclei gracillis and ?????
C. receives efferents from contralateral stimuli
D. sacral efferents lie laterally
E. runs anteriorly in the cord
Answer» C. receives efferents from contralateral stimuli
258.

For the Erlanger and Gasser classification, which is TRUE?

A. Sunday morning syndrome mainly affects C fibres
B. local anaesthetics primarily affect A fibres
C. preganglionic autonomic fibres are type B
D. C fibres have the largest diameter
E. B fibres are the least susceptible to hypoxia
Answer» D. C fibres have the largest diameter
259.

Nerve fibres, which is FALSE?

A. 70% of energy requirement of nerves is used in maintaining polarity across the recytlemina by action of Na-K ATPase
B. metabolic rate of nerves doubles in max action
C. C type fibres are non-myelinated and include some of the sympathetic preganglionic fibres
D. A and B fibres are all myelinated
E. effects of local anaesthetic are maximal in C fibres
Answer» D. A and B fibres are all myelinated
260.

Triglycerides are transported to cells via:

A. chylomicron remnants
B. HDL
C. LDL
D. VLDL
E. none of the above
Answer» E. none of the above
261.

When the cholinergic vagal fibres to nodal tissues are stimulated:

A. the membrane becomes hyper-polarised
B. the slope of the pre-potential is decreased
C. acetylcholine decreases conductance to Ca++ via muscarinic receptors
D. acetylcholine increases the permeability of nodal tissues to K+ via muscarinic receptors
E. all of the above are true
Answer» F.
262.

B nerve fibres:

A. provide motor supply to intrafusal muscle fibres
B. are usually the first fibres affected by local anaesthetics
C. are 12-20umol in diameter
D. are unmyelinated
E. provide pre-ganglionic autonomic supply
Answer» F.
263.

Dorsal root (type C) fibres:

A. conduct proprioception
B. are amongst the largest of the nerve fibres
C. are the fibres most susceptible to hypoxia
D. administration of lignocaine suppresses transmission in C fibres before affecting A fibres
E. are myelinated
Answer» E. are myelinated
264.

In the Erlanger and Gasser classification of nerve fibres:

A. C fibres have the fastest conduction velocity
B. A fibres are responsible for touch and pressure
C. C fibres are most susceptible to local anaesthetics
D. A fibres have the fastest conduction velocity and the longest absolute refractory period
E. A fibres are most susceptible to hypoxia
Answer» D. A fibres have the fastest conduction velocity and the longest absolute refractory period
265.

All of the following are transported across renal tubular cell membranes by secondary active transport, using the energy of the active transport of Na+ , EXCEPT:

A. glucose
B. lactate
C. citrate
D. H+
E. K+
Answer» F.
266.

Which of the following nerve fibres is most susceptible to hypoxia?

A. group B
B. group C
C. group A
D. dorsal root
E. somatic motor
Answer» B. group C
267.

The chemical agent that initiates impulses in pain fibres is:

A. ATP
B. substance P
C. Ca2+
D. H+
E. K+
Answer» C. Ca2+
268.

Which is FALSE regarding secondary active transport?

A. it always transports substances in one direction
B. energy required is obtained by Na+ /K+ ATPase pump
C. a good example is Na+ / glucose co-transport
D. Na+ / Ca2+ antiport is an example of secondary active transport
E. secondary active transport occurs in renal tubules
Answer» B. energy required is obtained by Na+ /K+ ATPase pump
269.

Substance X is freely filtered by the glomerulus and is not reabsorbed, nor secreted nor metabolized.If - serum x concentration = 0.020 mg/mlrenal artery x concentration = 0.020 mg/mlrenal vein x concentration = 0.002 mg/mlurine x concentration = 14 mg/mlurine flow = 54 ml/hrlymphatic x concentration = 0.00001 mg/mlhaematocrit = 0.45The GFR is:

A. 10.5 ml/min
B. 700 ml/min
C. 11.7 ml/min
D. 630 ml/min
E. 778 ml/min
Answer» E. 778 ml/min
270.

With regard to diuretics:

A. frusemide acts on the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle
B. antagonists to V2 vasopressin receptors act on the early portion of the distal convoluted tubule
C. thiazides act primarily on the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle
D. loop diuretics act on the collecting ducts
E. aldosterone antagonists act on the early portion of the distal convoluted tubule
Answer» B. antagonists to V2 vasopressin receptors act on the early portion of the distal convoluted tubule
271.

Ethacrynic acid exerts its principle effect in the:

A. proximal convoluted tubule
B. descending loop of Henle
C. thick ascending loop of Henle
D. distal convoluted tubule
E. collecting ducts
Answer» D. distal convoluted tubule
272.

Renal acid secretion is enhanced by:

A. respiratory acidosis
B. respiratory alkalosis
C. hyperkalaemia
D. carbonic anhydrase inhibition
E. collecting duct
Answer» B. respiratory alkalosis
273.

What is the clearance of a substance when its concentration in plasma is 1mg/ml, its concentration in urine is 10mg/ml and the urine flow is 2ml/min

A. 2ml/min
B. 10ml/min
C. 20ml/min
D. 200ml/min
E. clearance cannot be determined from the information given
Answer» D. 200ml/min
274.

The Haldane effect describes:

A. the shift to the right of the O2 dissociation curve caused by increased PCO2
B. the enhanced loading of CO2 iii the presence of deoxygenated Hb
C. the shift of chloride ions into red blood cells to balance HCO3 shift from those cells
D. the action of carbonic anhydrase on carbonic acid
E. none of the above
Answer» C. the shift of chloride ions into red blood cells to balance HCO3 shift from those cells
275.

If [urine]PAH = 14mg/ml, urine flow = 0.9ml/min and [plasma]PAH = 0.02mg/mli) What is the clearance of PAH?ii) If the extraction ratio of PAH is 0.9, what is the renal blood flow (Hct=45%)?

A. ClPAH = 630, renal blood flow = 1273ml/min
B. ClPAH = 630, renal blood flow = 700mb/min
C. ClPAH = 77, renal blood flow = 155mb/min
D. ClPAH = 777mb/min, renal blood flow = 1569mb/min
Answer» B. ClPAH = 630, renal blood flow = 700mb/min
276.

What is the clearance of a substance when its concentration in plasma is 1mg/ml, its concentration in urine is 10mg/ml and the urine flow is 2ml/min?

A. 2ml/min
B. 10ml/min
C. 20ml/min
D. 200ml/min
E. clearance cannot be determined from the information given
Answer» D. 200ml/min
277.

What percentage of filtered sodium is reabsorbed by the kidney?

A. 1%
B. 93%
C. 99%
D. 50%
E. 100%
Answer» D. 50%
278.

Given that a person weighs 60kg and their haematocrit is 40%, their total blood volume is:

A. 6L
B. 5L
C. 4L
D. 3L
E. cannot be calculated with the given information
Answer» C. 4L
279.

The cortical portion of the collecting duct has the capacity to reabsorb approximately 10% of the filtered water. Which substance is most important in regulating this effect?

A. angiotensin II
B. histamine
C. vasopressin
D. sodium
E. prostaglandins
Answer» D. sodium
280.

The stretch reflex in skeletal muscle:

A. is a feedback reflex aimed at maintaining muscle length
B. is a polysynaptic reflex
C. maintains muscle strength at various levels of muscle strength
D. is not elicited in the knee jerk which occurs after tapping
E. none of the above are true
Answer» B. is a polysynaptic reflex
281.

Regarding excitation-contraction coupling in skeletal muscle, which statement is INCORRECT?

A. calcium ions bind to troponin T
B. troponin I tropomyosin complex constitutes a relaxing protein
C. each cycle of attachment and detachment shortens muscle length by about 1%
D. ATP is the immediate source of energy
E. globular head of myosin II possesses actin binding site
Answer» B. troponin I tropomyosin complex constitutes a relaxing protein
282.

Steps involved in skeletal muscle contraction include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. binding of acetylcholine to nicotinic receptors
B. increased Na+ and K+ conductance in end plate membrane
C. spread of depolarisation along T tubules
D. binding of calcium to troponin T, with uncovering of its actin-myosin binding site
E. CTP (cytidine triphosphate)
Answer» F.
283.

Chemical composition, which is TRUE?

A. pH is the negative natural logarithm of [H+]
B. pH 5 to pH 6 involves tenfold increase in [H+]
C. pH remains 7.4 +/- 0.05 in ECF, stabilised by buffer
D. H2O and CO2 H2CO3 H+ and HCO3-, adding H+ shifts the equilibrium to the right, while adding ??? shifts it to the left
E. the Donnan effect does not contribute significantly to the balance of electrolyte between intra and extra vascular compartment
Answer» D. H2O and CO2 H2CO3 H+ and HCO3-, adding H+ shifts the equilibrium to the right, while adding ??? shifts it to the left
284.

The role of calcium in excitation/contraction couple in skeletal muscle is:

A. by binding troponin C it uncovers the binding site of actin to interact with the myosin head
B. by binding troponin I, it uncovers the binding site of actin to interact with the myosin head
C. by binding to tropomyosin, it allows troponic to bind to myosin
D. by binding to troponin C, it allows the myosin head to disengage resulting in relaxation
E. it causes depolarisation to spread along the tubules
Answer» B. by binding troponin I, it uncovers the binding site of actin to interact with the myosin head
285.

Which glucose transporter is responsible for the facilitated diffusion of glucose into pancreatic B cells?

A. glut 1
B. glut 2
C. glut 3
D. glut 4
E. glut 5
Answer» C. glut 3
286.

Tetanic contraction of skeletal muscle:

A. occurs because of the short refractory period of skeletal muscle
B. is due to increased calcium available for binding to troponin C
C. enables a tension development of approximately four times that of individual twitch contraction
D. occurs only with isometric contractions
E. has the same mechanism of that of cardiac muscle
Answer» D. occurs only with isometric contractions
287.

Fick s Law of Diffusion is dependent on all EXCEPT

A. The posture of the subject
B. The solubility of the gas
C. Thickness of membrane barrier
D. Molecular weight of the gas
E. Area of the membrane
Answer» B. The solubility of the gas
288.

Regarding aldosterone, which statement is INCORRECT?

A. it responds to changes in plasma sodium more strongly than changes in plasma potassium
B. it is only synthesised in the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex
C. its main action is to increase the synthesis of sodium-potassium pumps
D. angiotensins II and III have about equal mineralocorticoid stimulating activity
E. it acts via a cytoplasmic receptor that has equal affinity for cortisol
Answer» B. it is only synthesised in the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex
289.

Thiazide diuretics exert their main effect in the:

A. proximal convoluted tubule
B. descending loop of Henle
C. thick ascending loop of Henle
D. distal convoluted tubule
E. collecting ducts
Answer» E. collecting ducts
290.

Aldosterone has its principle effect in the:

A. proximal convoluted tubule
B. descending loop of Henle
C. thick ascending loop of Henle
D. distal convoluted tubule
E. collecting ducts
Answer» F.
291.

Which of these is NOT a factor affecting acid secretion?

A. intracellular PCO2
B. carbonic anhydrase level
C. K+ concentration
D. aldosterone concentration
E. none of the above
Answer» F.
292.

Diffusion is inversely proportional to:

A. the diffusion constant
B. tissue area
C. solubility of the gas
D. square root of the molecular weight
E. the difference in partial pressure
Answer» E. the difference in partial pressure
293.

The diffusion constant is proportional to:

A. tissue thickness
B. square root of the molecular weight
C. difference in partial pressures
D. tissue area
E. gas solubility
Answer» F.
294.

The visual cortex is situated at the:

A. parieto-occipital sulcus
B. cuneus
C. calcanine fissure
D. lateral geniculate body
E. angular gyrus
Answer» E. angular gyrus
295.

In the visual pathway:

A. the lateral geniculate bodies are made up of t layers
B. fibres for reflex pupillary constriction leave the optic nerve at the optic chiasm
C. pituitary tumours can cause homonymous hemianopia
D. macular sparing may or may not occur with lesions in the geniculocalcanine tract
E. binasal visual field fibres decussate at the opticchiasm
Answer» E. binasal visual field fibres decussate at the opticchiasm
296.

Which is the least significant buffering system in the blood?

A. H+ + plasma protein HProt
B. H+ +HPO4 2- H2PO4-
C. H+ + HCO3 - H2CO3
D. H+ + Hb HHb
E. collecting duct
Answer» C. H+ + HCO3 - H2CO3
297.

When a visual stimulus falls on a given point in the retina for a long time:

A. the image becomes more clearly focused
B. there is adaptation in the visual cortex
C. the discharge rate in the bipolar cells increases
D. the pupils constrict
E. the image fades and disappears
Answer» B. there is adaptation in the visual cortex
298.

Which of the following affect visual activity?

A. cataracts
B. vitamin A deficiency
C. astigmatism
D. contrast between stimulus and background
E. all of the above
Answer» F.
299.

Regarding body composition

A. 18% body weight is protein / related substances
B. 15% body weight is interstitial fluid
C. 60% body weight is water
D. 5% body weight is plasma
E. All of the above are true
Answer» F.
300.

Which statement regarding cardiac work is FALSE?

A. the energy applied to the blood stream is defined as kinetic plus potential
B. potential energy involves consideration of energy stored in elastic arterial walls and gravity
C. there is an exchange between kinetic and potential energy
D. the largest drop in energy occurs at the level of the precupillary sphincters
E. the higher resistance in smaller calibre vessels corresponds to greater energy losses
Answer» E. the higher resistance in smaller calibre vessels corresponds to greater energy losses